Split the Arithmetic Progressions

Can you color every positive integer either black or white such that there are no entirely white or entirely black non-constant infinite arithmetic progressions ?

This is not necessarily the coloring (if such a coloring is possible). This is not necessarily the coloring (if such a coloring is possible).

Yes No

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18 solutions

Sharky Kesa
Aug 5, 2018

A really easy construction: Colour all the numbers with an odd number of digits white, and colour all the numbers with an even number of digits black. Since the blocks of white and black numbers increase geometrically, whereas an arithmetic progression is increasing arithmetically, there doesn't exist a monochrome arithmetic progression.


Found it! I thought I might've posted this one a few years ago. Anyone who wants a free problem, click here .

I thought to do it with odd one colour even the other, but then thought that the progression with common difference zero is a valid in which case it would be entirely black or entirely white, is common difference 0 not valid?

Eren Ozturk - 2 years, 10 months ago

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You raise a good point! The constant sequence would surely be an example if you let the definition of arithmetic sequence include constant sequences. In my experience, it usually does. The solutions given seem to employ the narrower definition, outlawing zero differences between successive terms. It would have been better if the problem statement had made the choice clear.

Will Heierman - 2 years, 10 months ago

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I agree, it would have been helpful if it had been stated.

Eren Ozturk - 2 years, 10 months ago

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@Eren Ozturk I have edited the problem statement to reflect on this. :D

Sharky Kesa - 2 years, 10 months ago

Another easy scheme. Color 1 white, the next 2 integers black, the next three integers white, the next 4 integers black, ... . I see this is also Arjen's solution. Once his blocks get long enough, every successive block will have to contain at least one member of the given sequence.

Will Heierman - 2 years, 10 months ago

@Sharky Kesa became online again after a long time?

Syed Hamza Khalid - 2 years, 10 months ago

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I've been skulking on the site for a while. But this problem sorta blew up so ¯\_(ツ)_/¯.

Sharky Kesa - 2 years, 10 months ago

haha funny seeing you here sharvil (nice solution btw)

Bobby Dey - 2 years, 10 months ago

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What can I say? I'm everywhere. :D

Sharky Kesa - 2 years, 10 months ago

What makes an arithmetic progression non constant?

Seamus O'Dunn - 2 years, 10 months ago

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Common difference is not zero.

Sharky Kesa - 2 years, 10 months ago

I though of it as following an irrational in binairy(base 2).

Julian Scott - 2 years, 9 months ago

Color the first integer white, the next two integers black, the next three integers white, etc. We will call these sections of successive integers with the same colors, "blocks". Thus we have successively blocks of length 1, 2, 3, 4, etc.

Now consider an arithmetic progression a n = a 0 + n d a_n = a_0 + nd for some positive integers a 0 , d a_0, d ( n = 0 , 1 , 2 , n = 0, 1, 2, \dots ). Let k k be a positive integer such that the block of length k d kd comes after a 0 a_0 . There is at least one element from the progression that lies in this block. Suppose that a n a_n is the last element from the progression that lies in this block; then a n + 1 a_{n+1} lies in the next block, of length k d + 1 kd+1 , and therefore has the opposite color. Thus any arithmetic progression contains successive elements a n , a n + 1 a_n, a_{n+1} of opposite color, as we needed to prove.

can anyone explain me the question

Puru Agarwal - 2 years, 10 months ago

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Colour the natural numbers using two colours; black and white. Can you do it so there are no white arithmetic sequences and no black arithmetic sequences?

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Jeremy Galvagni
Aug 4, 2018

How about switching color every power of 2?

1,4,5,6,7,16,...,31,64,...

2,3,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,32,...

Any attempt at an AP would eventually get cut off.

Francesco Iacca
Aug 6, 2018

Consider the irrational number z = i = 1 1 0 i ! = 0 , 1100010000... z=\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} 10^{-i!}=0,1100010000... as a representation of natural numbers, where 1 means white and 0 means black. Let { a n } \{a_n\} be an arithmetic progression, where a n + 1 a n = k a_{n+1}-a_n=k : if a similar series existed, it would mean that, in the decimal represntation of z there is the same digit repeating each k digits, but this is impossible because z is irrational. Therefore, this progression doesn't exist.

This is a good line of thinking but it isn't true that the result follows from the irrationality of the number. There are irrational numbers with sequences in their digits that do follow patterns.

For example, I could take your z z and create a new number z z^* by forcing every fifth digit to be zero. My number z z^* is as irrational as yours but doesn't satisfy the problem.

In fact, your z z doesn't satisfy the problem at all. The arithmetic sequence starting at 3 and adding 2 each time would be all black since every term is odd but i ! i! is even for i > 1 i>1 .

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Nacer Jaafar
Aug 6, 2018

Can we get this result if we color prime numbers?

No, 4,6,8,10,... is an arithmetic progression composed entirely of monochrome numbers as they are composite.

Sharky Kesa - 2 years, 10 months ago

If you swapped colours every time you passed a prime number, it would work. This is because you can find gaps between primes that are as large as you like.

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago

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Can you prove this? (It seems difficult to prove)

Sharky Kesa - 2 years, 10 months ago

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That prime gaps can be arbitrarily large? It's relatively simple. Look at the following consecutive numbers.

n ! + 2 , n ! + 3 , . . . , n ! + k , . . . , n ! + n n!+2, n!+3, ..., n!+k, ..., n!+n

where 2 k n 2\le k\le n . Every term n ! + k n!+k is divisible by k k . So, we have at least n 1 n-1 composite integers between two primes. We can pick n n to be arbitrarily large.

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago

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@Chris Maitland Oops, yeah, my bad.

Sharky Kesa - 2 years, 10 months ago
Peter Higgins
Aug 10, 2018

Code all the AP's by the pair (a 0, d) and then list these by increasing value of m = a 0 + d (there are only finitely many AP's for each m so this defines a list containing them all). Start from the beginning of the list and colour one entry from the AP under consideration white and another black, and work through the list this way, only writing down numbers bigger than any you have previously written (which avoids multiple assignment of colours to one integer). Colour any smaller number not assigned a colour any way you like. That should do it.

Nicolas Guignes
Aug 10, 2018

B W BB WW BBB WWW BBBB WWWW...

Mary Arans
Aug 6, 2018

Colour every power of 2, 3 and 5 black, and all others white. At no point can you get a arithmetic progression. Or, switch colours every power of 2 and 3. At no point can you get an AP.

Your first solution is not right since the sequence starting at 1 with common difference 30 has all terms congruent to 1 mod 2, 3 and 5. It would be all white.

Your second solution works but you could just switch on powers of 2.

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Mark Hennings
Aug 4, 2018

Each infinite arithmetic progression of positive integers is determined by its first term a a and its common difference d d , where a . d N a.d \in \mathbb{N} . Thus the number of infinite arithmetic sequences of positive integers is countable. Let the collection of arithmetic progressions be { S n : n N } \{\mathcal{S}_n \,:\, n \in \mathbb{N}\} . Note that each set S n \mathcal{S}_n is infinite.

Find distinct elements x 1 , y 1 S 1 x_1,y_1 \in \mathcal{S}_1 . Now choose distinct elements x 2 , y 2 S 2 \ { x 1 , y 1 } x_2,y_2 \in \mathcal{S}_2 \backslash \{x_1,y_1\} .

Suppose that, for m N m \in \mathbb{N} , we have distinct elements x 1 , x 2 , . . . , x m , y 1 , y 2 , . . . , y m N x_1,x_2,...,x_m,y_1,y_2,...,y_m \in \mathbb{N} such that x j , y j S j x_j,y_j \in \mathcal{S}_j for 1 j m 1 \le j \le m . Since S m + 1 S_{m+1} is infinite, we can find two distinct elements x m + 1 , y m + 1 S m + 1 \ { x 1 , . . . , x m , y 1 , . . . , y m } x_{m+1},y_{m+1} \in \mathcal{S}_{m+1} \backslash \{x_1,...,x_m,y_1,...,y_m\} .

By induction, we can find sequences ( x n ) n (x_n)_n and ( y n ) n (y_n)_n such that:

  • x m y n , x m x n , y m y n x_m \neq y_n\,,\, x_m \neq x_n\,,\,y_m \neq y_n for all m , n 1 m,n \ge 1 ,

  • x n , y n S n x_n,y_n \in \mathcal{S}_n for all n 1 n \ge 1 ,

If we define A = { x n : n N } A = \{x_n \,:\, n \in \mathbb{N}\} and B = N \ A B = \mathbb{N} \backslash A , then x n A x_n \in A , so that x n ∉ B x_n \not\in B , so that S n ⊈ B \mathcal{S}_n \not\subseteq B . Also y n B y_n \in B , so that y n ∉ A y_n \not\in A , so that S n ⊈ A \mathcal{S}_n \not\subseteq A . This is true for any n N n \in \mathbb{N} , and hence neither A A nor B B contain any infinite arithmetic progression.

Fantastic argument!

To attempt to explain in layman's terms, you've created two sets A A and B B that don't overlap but together contain every natural number (i.e. a bipartition of natural numbers). Furthermore, you've done it in such a way that when you take any arithmetic sequence to check if it is contained in A A or B B , the answer is no. This is because A A and B B were cleverly built so that every arithmetic sequence has one number in A A (so missing from B B ) and one number missing from A A (so it is in B B ).

Colour all the numbers in A A white and all the numbers in B B black and you have a solution.

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Phil Lawroski
Aug 10, 2018

Take the first block of n numbers and use both colors. For the next block of n numbers, reverse the color scheme of the first block (e.g.if the i th number in the first block of n numbers is white then make the i th element of the second block of n numbers black). Now there are 2n numbers that are colored. Again, color the next block of 2n numbers with the opposite color sequence of the first 2n numbers. Now you have a block of 4n colored numbers and you can repeat the process on the next block of 4n numbers. Any arithmetic sequence with the same color will be reversed in the next block so that the expanded sequence is colored with more than one color.

I don't think this argument is complete. Can you guarantee that every arithmetic sequence will hit the i i th element in two adjacent blocks? They will hit adjacent blocks but how do know they hit the same element in both?

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Anmol Arichwal
Aug 10, 2018

Just colour the primes black

Any arithmetic sequence that contains only even terms greater than 2 will be completely white, so this is not a solution.

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Affan Morshed
Aug 9, 2018

My solution is to split the number line into sets of n consecutive numbers (n>=2) where (e.g., for n=2, 1-2 3-4 4-6...). for each set r, you take the product of it's elements and multiply it by r! (or some other f(r) that increases at a ridiculous rate), let it be i(r), and colour that in any colour, you should than multiply this product by some integer over 1 but under n, let it be j(r), and colour that in an opposing colour. because i(r)<j(r)<i(r+1)<j(r+1) the values you will colour will always be distinct but because you are colouring in two multiples of multiples of each block in different colours, every arithmetic progression will never be homogeneous in colour. The remaining numbers that are not coloured by this algortithm could be coloured any way.

Why does every arithmetic progression contain "two multiples of multiples of each block"?

I think you are saying something like every arithmetic progression contains every m k ! ( k n ) ! m\frac{k!}{(k-n)!} where 1 m < n 1\le m<n for some k k such that k k is a multiple of n n . That's not an obvious claim.

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Chin Kee Haw
Aug 9, 2018

I also found a solution based on the fair sharing theorem. It works as so: First give a piece of * insert cuttable object here * to A, then to B. But to be fair, the next sequence will be B A. Use the same logic and you get: A B B A B A A B B A A B A B B A...... Replace each A with white (or black) and replace each B with black (or white) and you get one valid answer.

I am not convinced. For example, could you please show that the arithmetic sequence starting at 1 with common difference 3 is not completely coloured white?

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago

The first thing that came to my mind was Cantor's diagonal argument. Initially, let's say we will color everything white. Now, as the set of all infinite arithmetic progressions is countable, we will pick the first of these progressions and change the first element of the progression to black, and then pick the second one and color its second element to black and so on. In this way, we get all the progressions with non-constant colors. However, I am assuming here that the progressions are ordered lexicographically, so that cases such as the one where the first element of the first progression is same as the m m th element of the n n th progression, with m n m\ne n , does not arise. I think this is a valid construction. Please comment if there are loopholes in the construction that I overlooked.

I don't think it's possible to order the progressions lexicographically:

1, 2, 3...

1, 3, 5...

1, 4, 7...

You will never reach a progression starting with 2.

Nate Jellis - 2 years, 10 months ago

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Of course, the number of progressions arranged lexicographically starting with 1 is infinite, but so is the number of infinite arithmetic progressions starting with 2,3 and so on. Those type of sequences I am talking about.

Samrat Mukhopadhyay - 2 years, 10 months ago

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But all the progressions starting with 2 come after the infinite number of progressions that start with 1. In the sequence 1, 2, 3... the 1 gets colored. In the sequence 1, 3, 5... the 3 gets colored. But no element gets colored in the sequence 2, 3, 4...

Nate Jellis - 2 years, 10 months ago

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@Nate Jellis Oh, right, the ordering has to be done in a different way. Thanks for the reply.

Samrat Mukhopadhyay - 2 years, 10 months ago

There are other solutions here that use a version of Cantor's diagonal argument. They take two elements that haven't been coloured yet from each arithmetic progression and colour them differently.

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Fabricio Kolberg
Aug 7, 2018

Color them with the following infinite procedure:

  • 1) set n to 1

  • 2) set p to 1

  • 3) color numbers n to n+p-1 black

  • 4) color n+p to n+2p-1 white

  • 5) change n to n+2p

  • 6) change p to p+1

  • 7) go to 3

Notice that, with this procedure, numbers get separated in "intervals" of consecutive numbers of the same color. Every black interval is followed by a white interval of the same length, and every white interval is followed by a black interval of length equal to its own length plus one.

Now to prove that this works:

Start with an arithmetic progression with some initial value a1 and some addition value r , and suppose, without loss of generality, that a1 is white. Follow this arithmetic progression until you either find a black number (in which case your work is done) or until you find an element b such that both b and b+r are in the same white "interval". You will necessarily find such a pair, since there is a white interval for all possible lengths.

If they are in the same white interval, that implies that the length of the interval is greater than r . Now, let c be the last element of the arithmetic progression within that same white interval. Note that c+r is black, since the length of the next black interval is necessarily greater than r .

Chris Maitland
Aug 7, 2018

As the other solutions allude to, one trick is to:

1) have finite blocks of numbers of one colour followed by finite blocks of numbers of the other colour; and

2) make sure you increase the size of the blocks so that no matter how large the common difference d d , there are adjacent blocks that are both larger than d d . Every arithmetic sequence must hit adjacent blocks at some point.

You could tweak this trick to make solutions without blocks of unbounded length. In fact there are colourings where the blocks are either length one or two.

Take Arjen's solution for example. The blocks are length 1, 2, 3, 4, ... Instead of changing block colour, we map Arjen's colouring to different patterns. For Arjen's white blocks, have the pattern that odd numbers are white and even numbers are black. For Arjen's black blocks, have the opposite pattern so odd numbers are black and even numbers white.

Arjen:

w-bb-www-bbbb-wwwww-bbbbbb...

map(Arjen):

w-wb-bwb-bwbw-wbwbw-wbwbwb...

Let's prove this works.

If the common difference d d is odd, there will be an Arjen block longer than 2 d 2d that contains at least two terms of the arithmetic sequence. In map(Arjen), these two terms are differently coloured as they have opposite parity and the alternating pattern is preserved.

If d d is even, there will be two adjacent Arjen blocks each of length greater than d d that each contain at least one term of the arithmetic sequence. In map(Arjen), these two terms have the same parity but the alternating pattern is different so the two terms are differently coloured.

Reid Chave
Aug 7, 2018

The Thue-Morse Sequence satisfies this.

I don't find this clear. Can you please explain what properties make this so?

Chris Maitland - 2 years, 10 months ago
Rohit Oraon
Aug 6, 2018

Rohit oraon

638202120000583

Rohit Oraon - 2 years, 10 months ago

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Rohit oraon

Rohit Oraon - 2 years, 10 months ago

347510486501

Rohit Oraon - 2 years, 10 months ago

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