A block of mass m is gently attached to the spring and released at time t = 0 , when the spring has its free length. During subsequent motion of the block, the displacement of the block x with respect to time t is considered. Find ∫ 0 3 x d t
Details and Assumptions
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Here is an easier approach. The mass will be in simple harmonic motion with ω = m k = 1 . 8 4 3 9 1 . It is obvious that the starting point x = 0 is the highest point of the motion, so that x ( t ) = A ( 1 − cos ω t ) . The amplitude corresponds to the equilibrium position: A = k m g = 2 . 8 8 2 3 5 . Integrating, we get ∫ 0 t x d t = ∫ 0 t A d t − A ∫ 0 t cos ω t = A t − ω A sin ω t . Plug it all in and you get ∫ 0 3 x d t = 9 . 7 1 4 2 5 , so that the answer is 9 7 1 5 .
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Actually I was trying to solve this way, but got stuck somewhere... ☺😊. Thank you!
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bro why not Asin wt ?
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@Hiroto Kun – Sorry, I did not get you... Could you explain?
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@Kishore S. Shenoy – why equation of motion is not A sin(wt) ?? and why A(1-cos(wt)) ??
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@Hiroto Kun – The function x = A sin ω t has its equilibrium position at x = 0 , but in the problem given here x = 0 is the highest point of the motion. The function x = A ( 1 − cos ω t ) was the desired behavior: its minimum value is zero, its equilibrium position is x = A , an the maximum value is x = 2 A .
@Hiroto Kun – I see... It's because the position origin I refer and that you refer are different. I refer the starting point(one extreme) as x = 0 , whereas you refer equilibrium point as x = 0 .
How can you assume that x(t)=A(1-coswt)? It isn't mentioned that the motion is according to the law x(t)=A(1-coswt). We have to derive it first, just like what kishore did.
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No, Aditya, we know that it is a SHM. Also, it starts with one extremes, ⇒ x ′ = a cos ω t But since x mentioned in the question is from the top, x = a − x ′ = a ( 1 − cos ω t ) Thus the solution!
Yes, I did the same (upvoted), but unfortunately my calculator stored the wrong value! Oh well...
Hi. I tried doing the same method, but I have a doubt.
You equated forced to calculate the amplitude, but won't we use energy conservation, as the object will continue it's motion even after the forces are equal due to inertia?
2 k A 2 = m g A A = k 2 m g
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Energy is conserved, but not in the way you propose. Here are two correct applications:
(1) Compare equilibrium position to top of motion: Δ K + Δ U e + Δ U g = 0 2 1 m v 0 2 + 2 1 k A 2 − m g A = 0 2 1 m ( ω A ) 2 + 2 1 k A 2 − m g A = 0 2 1 m ⋅ m k ⋅ A 2 + 2 1 k A 2 − m g A = 0 k A 2 − m g A = 0 ∴ A = m g / k .
(2) Compare bottom of motion to top of motion: Δ K + Δ U e + Δ U g = 0 0 + 2 1 k ( 2 A ) 2 − m g ( 2 A ) = 0 2 k A 2 − 2 m g A = 0 ∴ A = m g / k .
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@Arjen Vreugdenhil – Yep yep! I mistook the initial position of the mass to be it's mean position and not the extreme one! :+1:
The x here is taken from equilibrium position. So the equation should be x EQUALS ACOS(wt)
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x is taken from the position where the string is unstretched, but that is not the equilibrium position. The reason is the gravitational force, which causes the equilbirium position to lie at x 0 = m g / k .
No OFFENCE please but i want to point out one thing that i like solving problems in which i get the answer till end by myself only. but seeing so ugly values i can't avoid using calculator. so its by suggestion (again no offence ) that please try to include the data which can be calculated . the calculation with integers are easy but when it comes to like square root of 10/34 its too much of work .
Its my suggestion only ! :)
You can have a look at deepanshu gupta's problems . he is one of the best problem makers on brilliant of mechanics . (i am saying this becoz i love your mechanics problems ) Keep posting
Change the topic from classical mechanics as there are only 2 basic concepts of physics involved. There is more of calculus in it.
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LoL! Yes, very true... Do you think there is another way to solve it?
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Even I did it in the same way. Actually the Deq took me a lot of time to solve. Btw where did u get this problem? I fell in love with this problem. I bet this won't be in jee books.
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@Aditya Kumar – Do you get such problems in Fiitjee?? Btw If u like calculus in physics try the problems " speck of dust " and " speck of dust returns" cause I want to know if there is a shorter approach
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@Rohith M.Athreya – See Arjen's solution. I don't go to fiitjee.
You can also use the direct result of shm that is given in most standard books.isnt it By the way @Kishore S Shenoy in which class are you now
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11 t h Standard. You're in 12 t h right?
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Yes in fiitjee south delhi
Did the same as Arjen Vreugdenhill did :) . But dont you think that problem is like too easy for 400 Points!! . should be about 170-200 points (max) . but still nice problem!
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i don't think so , it deserves 400 !
May be I was lucky to get the answer , plz do correct me if I were wrong.
Using law of conservation of energy
E = 0 . 5 k x 2 − m g x − 0 . 5 m v 2
d t d E = 0
We get k x v − m g v − m v d t d v = 0
⇒ d t d v = m k x − m g
⇒ ∫ 0 3 d v = m k ∫ 0 3 x . d t − g ∫ 0 3 d t
@Tanishq Varshney , how would you get ∫ 0 3 d v for proceeding?
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I don't know I simply took it 3 and luckily got the answer correct , can u post ur solution?
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I was stuck at the previous step. But one more thing left, how do you know that at t = 3 , v = 3 ? If you know that, the answer is pretty easy.
And the answer is wrong too, you would've got the answer to be 9.52941176470588 right?
But the answer is 9.71424692498118
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@Kishore S. Shenoy – Yes , and in brilliant 5-10℅ error is allowed
@Kishore S Shenoy is right. See u cannot directly integrate both the side. If v and x were independent, u could've. Here u should've used v=dx/dt to solve. If u proceed further you'll get the solution.
Is the answer 8.5 ?
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Method 1:
As we see, x ¨ = g − ω 2 x where x ¨ = a , the acceleration of the block.
So we get a second degree non-homogenous differential equation, x ¨ + ω 2 x = g
Taking auxiliary equation, x ¨ + ω 2 x = 0 with general solution x = e r t , x ¨ = r 2 x . So, ( r 2 + ω 2 ) ⋅ e r t = 0 ∴ r = i ω x c x c = ℜ { e i ω t } = cos ω t
Now taking particular solution, the D.Eq is of the form A x ¨ + B x = C
C is of the form c ⋅ t 0 . So, particular solution x p = c ⋅ t 0 . So, x ¨ p = 0 .
Substituting in our D.Eq, 0 + ω 2 x p = ω 2 ⋅ c = g ⇒ c = ω 2 g x p = ω 2 g
Thus, the solution for x is x = C 1 x c + x p = C 1 cos ω t + ω 2 g where ω = m k .
Taking initials conditions to get C 1 , x t = 0 = 0 x = C 1 c o s ω t + ω 2 g ⇒ 0 = C 1 + ω 2 g ⇒ C 1 = − ω 2 g
Hence, the solution is x = ω 2 g ( 1 − cos ω t )
Thus ∫ 0 3 x d t = ∫ 0 3 ω 2 g ( 1 − cos ω t ) d t = 9 . 7 1 4 2 4 6 9 2 5
Method 2:
We know that the spring oscillates harmonically.Also x ¨ = g − ω 2 x
At equilibrium position, x ¨ = 0 ⇒ x e q = ω 2 g
So, writing equations of harmonic oscillations, x e q − x = a cos ( ω t )
Substituting initial conditions, at t = 0 , x = 0 . So, a = x e q = ω 2 g
So, the equation of motion becomes, x = x e q − x e q cos ( ω t ) x = k m g ( 1 − cos ω t )
Thus ∫ 0 3 x d t = ∫ 0 3 ω 2 g ( 1 − cos ω t ) d t = 9 . 7 1 4 2 4 6 9 2 5