Springs and SHM - 2

A very light rod of length \ell pivoted at O O is connected with two springs of stiffness k 1 k_1 and k 2 k_2 at a distance a a and \ell from the pivot respectively. A block of mass m m attached with the spring k 2 k_2 is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. If the angular frequency of small oscillation of the block m m is ω \omega , find 1000 ω \lceil{1000\omega}\rceil

Details

  • m = 10 k g , k 1 = 23 N m 1 , k 2 = 34 N m 1 , l = 1 m , a = 43 c m m = 10kg,~ k_1 = 23Nm^{-1},~ k_2 = 34Nm^{-1},~l=1m,~a = 43cm

This Question is not Original


The answer is 615.

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3 solutions

Kishore S. Shenoy
Jan 10, 2016

Since the rod is light, net torque on it will be zero. To find net extension in the second spring, we use this equation. First, let θ \theta be the angle made by the rod at the extreme position. Thus the net extension in the second spring will be x θ x-\ell\theta . So, balancing torques k 1 a 2 θ = k 2 ( x θ ) θ = k 2 2 x a 2 k 1 + 2 k 2 k_1a^2\theta = k_2\ell(x-\ell\theta)\\\Rightarrow\ell\theta = \dfrac{k_2\ell^2x}{a^2k_1+\ell^2k_2}

Thus, the force on the block is only due to the second spring, F = k 2 ( x θ ) = k 1 k 2 a 2 a 2 k 1 + 2 k 2 x \begin{aligned}F &= -k_2(x-\ell\theta)\\&=-\dfrac{k_1k_2a^2}{a^2k_1+\ell^2k_2}x \end{aligned}

Thus, by definition : ω = k 1 k 2 a 2 m ( a 2 k 1 + 2 k 2 ) \omega = \sqrt{\dfrac{k_1k_2a^2}{m(a^2k_1+\ell^2k_2)}}

Moderator note:

This is a very clear approach that cuts through some needless steps. Great insight with the zero-torque requirement on the massless rod, perhaps some further explanation of this step would benefit others. Excellent solution.

@Brilliant Physics , can you please explain where and how should I elaborate more?

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 5 months ago

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I think you should add an explanation of why a massless rod has zero torque.

Brilliant Physics Staff - 5 years, 4 months ago

Did the same thing, forgot to take the square root and hence entered 578! Feel so bad, especially when there is no credit for working.

Deeparaj Bhat - 5 years, 3 months ago

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even i did the same mistake ...and btw it comes out to be 378

Rohit Gilbert - 5 years, 3 months ago

can u explain how u wrote extensions

Dhruv Aggarwal - 5 years, 2 months ago

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Where did you not understand, in which case?

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 1 month ago

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sorry for late reply . i didnt understand extension a for spring 1 and x-l for 2nd

Dhruv Aggarwal - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Dhruv Aggarwal It's fine! Suppose the rod turns a very small degree δ θ \delta\theta w.r.t vertical. So the extension of Spring 1 becomes a δ θ a\delta\theta because d l = r d θ \mathrm dl = r\mathrm d\theta . If we displace (elongating the Spring 2) the block slightly by δ x \delta x , since the rod shortens it to δ θ \ell\delta\theta , the net extension becomes ( δ x δ θ ) \left(\delta x - \ell\delta\theta\right)

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Kishore S. Shenoy okay thanks . i was thinking wrongly that extensions should be same .. my bad

Dhruv Aggarwal - 5 years, 1 month ago

what is x ? bro @Kishore S Shenoy and how is x related by theta like that it would be good if you explain !

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 6 months ago

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x x is the displacement of the block.

Kishore S. Shenoy - 4 years, 6 months ago

Nice problem!

I made a mistake by writing extension in second spring as x+l(theeta).

Harsh Shrivastava - 4 years, 5 months ago

SOLUTION IS EPIC

rakshith lokesh - 3 years, 3 months ago

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Glad you liked it!

Kishore S. Shenoy - 3 years, 3 months ago

btw do u recommend level 5 brilliant questions for iit jee ?

rakshith lokesh - 3 years, 3 months ago

but the forces due to both the springs are producing torques in same direction ( anticlockwise if the lower one is compressed) how come they cancel each other? are you not taking torques from hinge point? or is it that when lower spring is compressed the block displaces more and thus causing an extension?

Prabhat Koutha - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Yes. Thus the net torque on the rod CAN be zero. If it's not, the net angular acceleration would be infinite.

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 1 month ago
Pranav Rao
Dec 29, 2015

As the rod is light the spring with stiffness k1 can be shifted from distance a to the distance l from the pivot with a equivalent spring of stiffness k1(a/l)^2. Then we see that the springs are in series and we find the net stiffness. This comes out to be 3.7799. Then finding angular frequency is easy.

nice method

sashank bonda - 5 years, 1 month ago

What if rod has mass

sashank bonda - 5 years ago

i did by your method bro ! you rock !

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 6 months ago

Let us consider a hypothetical spring of stiffness k k at the bottom which is opposite to the spring k 2 k_{2} instead of the spring with stiffness k 1 k_{1} .

So the elastic potential energy stored in both the springs are equal.

The extension in the springs are a θ & l θ for k 1 k_{1} & k k respectively.

So by equating their energies we get,

k k = k 1 a 2 l 2 \frac{k_{1}a^{2}}{l^{2}}

We also know that these two springs are connected in series.So the equivalent stiffness is ,

1 k e f f \frac{1}{k_{eff}} = 1 k 2 \frac{1}{k_{2}} + 1 k \frac{1}{k}

k e f f k_{eff} = k 1 k 2 a 2 k 1 a 2 + k 2 l 2 \frac{k_{1}k_{2}a^{2}}{k_{1}a^{2} + k_{2}l^{2}}

On equating the force,

k e f f k_{eff} x x = m ω 2 x mω^{2}x

On substituting the values we get

ω = 0.6148 \boxed{ω = 0.6148}

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