An unbiased, representative survey of the citizens of a country finds that 60% of them favor Candidate A over Candidate B in an upcoming election. Does this mean that exactly 60% of all citizens of the country favor Candidate A over Candidate B?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
a survey is done among-st few people chosen randomly.so,there is a big chance that most of the the people included in the survey were accidentally same thinkers.
example---before USA's election most of the survey brought negative result for Trump.but it didn't happen.