Given positive reals a , b , c such that a + b + c = a b c then the minimum value of ( a 2 + 1 ) ( b 2 + 1 ) ( c 2 + 1 ) is m . Find the value of ⌊ 1 0 0 m ⌋ .
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Nice solution. Is there any algebraic way to do so. I tried Cauchy Schwartz and AM-GM but was not able to conclude anything. However, there was symmetry in equation , hence putting a=b=c gave me the answer.
If a = b = c = 0 , the value of the expression is equal to 1 which is definitely lesser than 8 .
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0 ∈ R + @Marc Vince Casimiro
@Daniel Liu But if tan A + tan B + tan C = tan A tan B tan C , this does not necessarily mean that A + B + C = π . What this would mean is that A + B + C is an integral multiple of π . It is the converse which is true.
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But the substitution is sufficient to cover all possible values of ( a , b , c ) = ( tan A , tan B , tan C )
Yep, same way. Use property of triangle then make it equilateral. +1
Wouldn't a=1, b=2, c=3, work. then m=4 and solution = 400.
It is toooooo good...............
a=-1 b=0 c=1 a+b+c =0 abc=0 m=2 100m=200
Brilliant .. never thought about using trigonometry here..
a=-1 b=0 c=1 a+b+c =0 abc=0 m=2 100m=200
I absolutely admire Daniel's approach. But as Samuel wanted an algebraic one, here it is... :)
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Nice solution friend. Nice approach.
Will this method be right
as a + b + c = a b c
then for min. value we must take the three values equal
a = b = c
Now, a + b + c = a b c
or, a + a + a = a × a × a
or, 3 a = a 3
or, a = 3
Now as a = 3 then , a = b = c = 3
Now putting the values in the equation to get the value of m
( a 2 + 1 ) ( b 2 + 1 ) ( c 2 + 1 ) = m
or, ( a 2 + 1 ) ( a 2 + 1 ) ( a 2 + 1 ) = m
or, ( 3 2 + 1 ) ( 3 2 + 1 ) ( 3 2 + 1 ) = m
or, 4 × 4 × 4 = m
or, 8 = m
Now, as m = 8 then 1 0 0 m = 1 0 0 × 8 = 8 0 0
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Your method is not a solution, because you assumed equality case to be a = b = c .
We can use Holder's inequality.
Thank you! This solution is brilliant!
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Oh! :) My effort is complete if it appealed to those who wanted algebra solely.
This is beautiful :D
Thanks so much sir for this algebraic approach. Now i understand. :)
Nice but could please tell me what is wrong with this,
By AM-GM inequality,
a + b + c = a b c ...........(1)
a + b + c ≥ 3 ( a b c ) 1 / 3
( a b c ) 3 ≥ 2 7 a b c ..........From(1)
a b c ≥ 3 3
Consider two +ve real numbers a 2 , 1 ,Applying AM-Gm inequality, we get,
2 a 2 + 1 ≥ ( a 2 ) ( 1 )
⇒ a 2 + 1 ≥ 2 a
⇒ a 2 + 1 ≥ 2 a ........(2)
Similarly, a 2 + 1 ≥ 2 b ..........(3)
c 2 + 1 ≥ 2 c ............(4)
On multiplying (2),(3) and (4), we get,
( a 2 + 1 ) ( b 2 + 1 ) ( c 2 + 1 ) ≥ 2 2 a b c ,
So, the minimum value of the above expression is 2 2 a b c ,
Now, putting the value of abc in the above expression,
⇒ m = 2 2 3 3
m ≈ 6 . 4 4 7 4
1 0 0 m ≈ 6 4 4 . 7 4
⇒ [ 1 0 0 m ] = 6 4 4
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When you apply AM-GM the second time you got the equality is when a =1, b=1,c=1. However, the first time you apply the AM-GM for abc =3.... which is not the equality case since abc=1.
how did u get that (abc)^2 >= 27 ???
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he raised the power of both sides to the third power so he got (abc)^3≥27(abc) divide both sides by (abc) so you got (abc)^2≥27
i am sorry but can you please clarify how did you get (ab)^2+( bc)^2+(ac)^2 minimised
Brilliant solution!
First, let m = a + b + c = a b c , n = a b + b c + c a , and f ( x ) = ( x + a ) ( x + b ) ( x + c ) .
If we expand the formula for f , we get f ( x ) = x 3 + m x 2 + n x + m . Therefore, we have: { f ( i ) = i 3 + n i + m ( i 2 + 1 ) = − i + n i = ( n − 1 ) i f ( − i ) = ( − i ) 3 − n i + m ( i 2 + 1 ) = i − n i = − ( n − 1 ) i (where i = − 1 .) Therefore, ( a 2 + 1 ) ( b 2 + 1 ) ( c 2 + 1 ) = ( a + i ) ( b + i ) ( c + i ) ( a − i ) ( b − i ) ( c − i ) = f ( i ) f ( − i ) = − i 2 ( n − 1 ) 2 = ( n − 1 ) 2 = ∣ n − 1 ∣ Now let's use the A M − G M inequality to find a lower bound on n : n = a b + b c + c a ≥ 3 ( 3 a 2 b 2 c 2 ) = 3 m 2 / 3 Since a few people have already proved that a b c ≥ 3 3 , I won't bother proving it again. Substituting this gives us n ≥ 9 , and therefore ∣ n − 1 ∣ ≥ 8 .
Omg you destroy my head haha, beautiful !!!
Amazingly done!
a good solution
Unique solution! I like it.
Actually, i used another approach but not sure maybe it's mathematicaly acceptable.
a + b + c = a b c ,
therefore, b c 1 + a c 1 + a b 1 = 1 ,
using A M − G M ,
b c 1 + a c 1 + a b 1 = 1 ≥ 3 3 a 2 b 2 c 2 1 ,
equality holds when a = b = c
therefore, 1 ≥ 3 3 a 6 1
1 ≥ 3 a − 2 ,
a 2 ≥ 3 and
a ≥ 3 .
a , b , c ≥ 3
Subtituting into the inequality,
we get m = 6 4 = 8 .
Therefore, floor function of 1 0 0 m = 8 0 0 .
I don't know maybe this approach is correct.
By replacing a 2 b 2 c 2 1 with a 6 1 , you assumed the equality case when you haven't proved it yet.
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how do i prove it
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There is indeed a purely algebraic way to reach the answer which doesn't use your assumption. I suggest u to think over it. I too will try to post it soon! Cheers!
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@Yogesh Verma – Wow I'd like to see this! :) Thanks in advance.
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@Stefan Chircop – I have posted a solution... Hope it makes sense! =)
( a 2 + 1 ) ( b 2 + 1 ) ( c 2 + 1 )
= 1 + ( a b c ) 2 ( 1 + a 2 1 + b 2 1 + c 2 1 )
≥ 1 + ( a b c ) 2 ( 1 + 3 ( a b c ) − 2 / 3 ) (AM-GM)
= 1 + ( a b c ) 2 + 3 ( a b c ) 4 / 3
Which is increasing with abc. Thus if equality holds when abc is minimized, then this is minimized.
( ( a + b + c ) / 3 ) 3 ≥ a b c ( ( a b c ) / 3 ) 3 ≥ a b c a b c ≥ 3 3
With equality when a = b = c = 3 . As these values minimize abc and also hold the equality, they give the minimum value of m, i.e. ( 3 2 + 1 ) 3 = 8
Using AM-GM we get a + b + c ≥ 3 3 a b c ⇔ a b c ≥ 3 3 a b c ⇔ 3 ( a b c ) 2 ≥ 3 Using a consequense of Holder inequality we get ( a 2 + 1 ) ( b 2 + 1 ) ( c 2 + 1 ) ≥ [ 1 + 3 ( a b c ) 2 ] 3 ≥ 4 3 ⇔ ( a 2 + 1 ) ( b 2 + 1 ) ( c 2 + 1 ) ≥ 4 3 = 8 ⇒ m = 8 ⇒ ⌊ 1 0 0 m ⌋ = 8 0 0 The equality holds when a = b = c = 3
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Seeing the condition a + b + c = a b c reminds us of the trigonometric substitution a = tan A , b = tan B and c = tan C where A + B + C = π .
Subbing this back in the expression, we get ( tan 2 A + 1 ) ( tan 2 B + 1 ) ( tan 2 C + 1 ) Using the identity tan 2 θ + 1 = sec 2 θ we get it equal to ( sec 2 A ) ( sec 2 B ) ( sec 2 C ) = sec A sec B sec C = cos A cos B cos C 1
However, we know that cos A cos B cos C ≤ 8 1 as it is a famous inequality, so cos A cos B cos C 1 ≥ 8 and our answer is ⌊ 8 ⋅ 1 0 0 ⌋ = 8 0 0