k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) sin ( k x ) = ?
Notation:
(
N
M
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=
N
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(
M
−
N
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M
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denotes the
binomial coefficient
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Bonus: What about this one?
k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) cos ( k x ) = ?
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Nice oroblem. This oroblem should be discrete mathematics level 4 or 5
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I would leave that to the staff members. Yes, this problem is very easy if you immediately get hold of the fact that De Moivre's theorem can be applied to solve this easily. And there may be a better approach too (although I don't know of any other good one).
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Level 3 is low for it.
How did you solve the problem?
Very cool B)
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Yes, I never thought of using De Movire here, Brilliant has done a lot to me, It has given ,me much knowledge
Thank you to the Moderators
@Chew-Seong Cheong , @Calvin Lin , @Tapas Mazumdar ( You did the problem )
Many more, Who have helped me, Thank you to all! :D
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Thanks for the acknowledgement @Md Zuhair . The Brilliant community was created only for this purpose ; to help learners like you and me gain more knowledge and learn better and intuitive ways to approach problems. Like you, the brilliant community has also taught me a lot!
Thanks for your appreciations, keep learning! ^_^
I too did it using De Movier's Theroem.
But anyways as in this problem , @Chew-Seong Cheong sir's solution would be the easiest and fastest method to solve the problem.
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THis is absolutely correct. @Chew-Seong Cheong sirs solution is fastest one, and more efficient, @Tapas Mazumdar , dont you think? Please dont mind anything
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By the way , @Tapas Mazumdar Your solution was pretty complex.
As a friend I am just kidding , take that to be a pun (Firstly , it used lots of COMPLEX LATEX and secondly , it included lots of COMPLEX NUMBERS.)
Don't mind... Even my solution was exactly the same. :) :) :)
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@Ankit Kumar Jain – Wow! You did like this? Great bro, Tune bataya tha ki tujhe 11th ka kuch nahi ata! J H U T ! :)....
Tu toh hardest chapter kar ke baitha hai!
Relevant wiki: Euler's Formula
S = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) sin k x = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) ℑ { e i k x } = ℑ { k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) e i k x } = ℑ { ( 1 + e i x ) n } = ℑ { ( 1 + cos x + i sin x ) n } = ℑ { ( 1 + 2 cos 2 2 x − 1 + 2 i sin 2 x cos 2 x ) n } = ℑ { 2 n cos n 2 x ( cos 2 x + i sin 2 x ) n } = ℑ { 2 n cos n 2 x ⋅ e i 2 n x } = 2 n cos n 2 x sin 2 n x By Euler’s formula: e i θ = cos θ + i sin θ where ℑ { z } is the real part of complex number z .
Bonus : Similar solution see here .
For this problem, two useful tools are:
Binomial Theorem: ( a + b ) n = k = 0 ∑ n a k b n − k ;
Euler's formula: e i x = c o s ( x ) + i s i n ( x ) ⇒ s i n ( x ) = 2 i 1 ( e i x − e − i x ) and c o s ( x ) = 2 1 ( e i x + e − i x ) .
Then,
k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) s i n ( k x ) = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) 2 i 1 ( e i k x − e − i k x )
= 2 i 1 k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) e i k x − 2 i 1 k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) e − i k x
= 2 i 1 ( e i x + 1 ) n − 2 i 1 ( e − i x + 1 ) n [Binomial Thm with a = e ± i x and b = 1 ]
= 2 i 1 ( e i x / 2 ) n ( e i x / 2 + e − i x / 2 ) n − 2 i 1 ( e − i x / 2 ) n ( e − i x / 2 + e i x / 2 ) n
= 2 i 1 ( e i n x / 2 − e − i n x / 2 ) ( e i x / 2 + e − i x / 2 ) n
= s i n ( n x / 2 ) ( 2 c o s ( x / 2 ) ) n [from the inverted Euler's formula for s i n ( n x ) ]
⇒ k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) s i n ( k x ) = 2 n c o s n ( x / 2 ) s i n ( n x / 2 ) .
For the bonus problem, observe that c o s ( x ) = 2 1 ( e i x + e − i x ) and that, in the above derivation, the factor 2 i 1 and the − sign between the e ± i k x terms from the s i n ( k x ) replacement in the first equality are the same as those in the next-to-last equality. So, the replacement 2 i 1 → 2 1 and − → + , respectively, of those in the derivation and using the inverted Euler's formula for c o s ( x ) immediately yields:
⇒ k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) c o s ( k x ) = 2 n c o s n ( x / 2 ) c o s ( n x / 2 ) .
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Relevant wiki: De Moivre's Theorem
For the main problem
Consider the following sum
k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) [ cos ( k x ) ± i sin ( k x ) ] = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) e ± i k x = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) ( e ± i x ) k = ( 1 + e ± i x ) n
Hence
k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) sin ( k x ) = 2 i { k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) [ cos ( k x ) + i sin ( k x ) ] } − { k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) [ cos ( k x ) − i sin ( k x ) ] } = 2 i ( 1 + e i x ) n − ( 1 + e − i x ) n = 2 i [ 1 + cos ( x ) + i sin ( x ) ] n − [ 1 + cos ( x ) − i sin ( x ) ] n = 2 i [ 2 cos 2 ( 2 x ) + 2 i sin ( 2 x ) cos ( 2 x ) ] n − [ 2 cos 2 ( 2 x ) − 2 i sin ( 2 x ) cos ( 2 x ) ] n = 2 i 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) { [ cos ( 2 x ) + i sin ( 2 x ) ] n − [ cos ( 2 x ) − i sin ( 2 x ) ] n } = 2 i 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) { ( e 2 i x ) n − ( e 2 − i x ) n } = 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) ⎣ ⎡ 2 i ( e 2 i n x ) − ( e 2 − i n x ) ⎦ ⎤ = 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) sin ( 2 n x )
For the bonus problem
k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) cos ( k x ) = 2 { k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) [ cos ( k x ) + i sin ( k x ) ] } + { k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) [ cos ( k x ) − i sin ( k x ) ] } = 2 ( 1 + e i x ) n + ( 1 + e − i x ) n = 2 [ 1 + cos ( x ) + i sin ( x ) ] n + [ 1 + cos ( x ) − i sin ( x ) ] n = 2 [ 2 cos 2 ( 2 x ) + 2 i sin ( 2 x ) cos ( 2 x ) ] n + [ 2 cos 2 ( 2 x ) − 2 i sin ( 2 x ) cos ( 2 x ) ] n = 2 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) { [ cos ( 2 x ) + i sin ( 2 x ) ] n + [ cos ( 2 x ) − i sin ( 2 x ) ] n } = 2 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) { ( e 2 i x ) n + ( e 2 − i x ) n } = 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) ⎣ ⎡ 2 ( e 2 i n x ) + ( e 2 − i n x ) ⎦ ⎤ = 2 n cos n ( 2 x ) cos ( 2 n x )