Let f and g be transcendental functions, such that
f ( x ) = − g ( x )
k = 1 ∑ ∞ f ( k ) diverges
j = 1 ∑ ∞ g ( j ) diverges as well.
Must m = 1 ∑ ∞ ( f − g ) ( m ) converge?
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Given the way your question is set up, the answer is "Can't say". IE There exists functions f and g where the sum converges, and there exists functions where the sum doesn't converge. Hence, we cannot conclude unless we know what the functions are.
I have updated the answer accordingly.
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But my question just asks if there are functions f(x) and g(x) whose summations diverge to infinity such that m = 0 ∑ ∞ ( f − g ) ( m ) converges. I didn't ask if "does that said summation converge?", to which the answer is "can't say".
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This is iffy due to the way the question was phrased. Those who answered "Yes" are now marked correct.
I will rephrase the question for clarity.
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@Calvin Lin – I am sorry to sound stubborn, but I believe my phrasing of the question was perfectly fine and sensible. May I know what part of the original question was iffy? It was supposed to be part of the question to figure it out. Editing it will remove the first purpose of my problem, and will render my proof useless. :(
Put bluntly, we Can't say that the given summation converges of not because at times it CAN converge, and at times it can't.
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Let there be two functions p and q such that
k = 1 ∑ ∞ p ( k ) diverges, while k = 1 ∑ ∞ q ( k ) converges, and
f ( x ) = p ( x ) + q ( x ) , and g ( x ) = p ( x ) .
From these assumptions, we can see that the conditions set above are met, and the resulting summation would converge, as
m = 1 ∑ ∞ ( f − g ) ( m ) = m = 1 ∑ ∞ [ p ( m ) + q ( m ) − p ( m ) ] = m = 1 ∑ ∞ q ( m ) which, from our definition, converges.
As an example, set p ( x ) = e x and q ( x ) = e − x . Then, that will give us f ( x ) = e x + e − x , and g ( x ) = e x , both known to diverge.