a ! b ! = a ! + b ! + c 2
Positive integers a , b , and c , with a > b , are the unique solution to the equation above.
If c a b = n m for coprime positive integers m and n , find m + n .
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@Calvin Lin Is there a better way to type "does not divide" in Latex than "\not|"?
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Nope, that's just it.
I typically use "\mid" for |, which produces ∣ . So "\not \mid" will be ∣ . Compare against "\not |" which is ∣ .
Note: There is a square that is one more than another square. IE 1 and 0.
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Edited to include only positive squares. Thanks for pointing it out!
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This would be personal preference in terms of solution writing. I would not deal with the a = b or b = 1 case at the start because they do not generate insight to help guide / restrict the rest of the solution. (Yes, I understand that you might have approached this problem by trying specific cases at the start.)
Seems to me that the important steps are
1. WLOG
a
≥
b
. Divide by
b
!
to conclude that
a
≥
3
.
2. Factorize
(
a
!
−
1
)
(
b
!
−
1
)
=
c
2
+
1
to conclude that
a
<
4
. Hence
a
=
3
.
3. Check
b
=
1
,
2
,
3
.
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@Calvin Lin – Very straight to the point, I agree. I'll think about that the next time I write a solution. Thanks Calvin!
In the puzzle a
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In the puzzle you mentioned that a>b, but I think it would be more interesting, if a=b is possible too.
Doesn't the puzzle say that a > b ?
W e h a v e f = a ! ∗ b ! − ( a ! + ! b ) − c 2 = 0 S i n c e a > b , m i n i m u m a = 2 a n d b = 1 . B u t i f b = 1 , f = − c 2 , s o c = 0 . B u t g i v e n c > 0 . S o m i n i m u m b = 2 , a n d a > 2 . I f a = 3 , a n d b = 2 , f = 6 ∗ 2 − ( 6 + 2 ) − c 2 = 4 − c 2 = 0 . S o c = ± 2 . B u t c > 0 . S o c = 2 . n m = 2 3 2 . ∴ m + n = 9 + 2 = 1 1 .
Interesting use of the conditions to quickly get to the answer!
If it was not given that ( a , b , c ) = ( 3 , 2 , 2 ) is the unique solution to this problem, how would you approach it then?
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Without loss of generality, let's assume that b ≤ a .
If b = a , then ( a ! ) 2 = 2 a ! + c 2 .
∴ ( a ! ) 2 − 2 a ! + 1 ( a ! − 1 ) 2 = c 2 + 1 = c 2 + 1
Note that c > 0 ⟹ c 2 > 0 . Since there exists no positive square which is one more than another positive square, we have b < a .
Also, b = 1 - otherwise, a ! = a ! + 1 + c 2 ⟹ c 2 = − 1 .
Dividing a ! b ! = a ! + b ! + c 2 by b ! we have
a ! = b ! a ! + 1 + b ! c 2
Clearly the LHS is an integer, so since b ! a ! is an integer, b ! c 2 must also be an integer. Furthermore, the RHS ≥ 3 , which means that a ! ≥ 3 ⟹ a ≥ 3 .
From a ! b ! = a ! + b ! + c 2 , we have a ! b ! − a ! − b ! + 1 = c 2 + 1
∴ ( a ! − 1 ) ( b ! − 1 ) = c 2 + 1
Let us assume that a prime p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) divides the RHS.
If c 2 + 1 ≡ 0 ( m o d p ) , it follows that c 2 ≡ − 1 ( m o d p ) , and it is clear that p ∣ c .
∴ ( c 2 ) 2 p − 1 = c p − 1 ≡ ( − 1 ) 2 p − 1 ( m o d p )
But we are given that p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) , so p − 1 ≡ 2 ( m o d 4 ) , which means that 2 p − 1 will be odd, and ( − 1 ) 2 p − 1 = − 1 .
So c p − 1 ≡ − 1 ( m o d p ) , but that is a contradiction since g cd ( c , p ) = 1 , and by Fermat's Little Theorem , c p − 1 ≡ 1 ( m o d p ) .
In other words, there exists no prime p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) ∣ c 2 + 1 .
However, for a ≥ 4 , a ! ≡ 0 ( m o d 4 ) , and a ! − 1 ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) ; that is, the LHS is divisible by a prime p ≡ 3 ( m o d 4 ) .
Hence, 1 < b < a ≤ 3 , but we have already established that a ≥ 3 , so we have a = 3 and b = 2 , and from the original equation, c = 2 .
⟹ c a b = 2 9
⟹ m + n = 1 1