Let x 1 , x 2 , x 3 , ⋯ denote all the positive solutions of the equation tan x = x .
If S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( x n 1 ) 2 , find S 1 .
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I think you should correct your solution. Because S = 1 0 1 not 1 0
Can you please tell me how you calculated n = 1 ∑ ∞ cos 2 x n in the other question?
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That was just simple manipulations...........Convert cosine squared into reciprocal of secant squared and then write it as 1 + tangent squared which is equal to 1 + (x n)^2.......(because, tan(x n) = x_n)......I think you can proceed from there.........
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I know that. The question was intially stated like that but i changed it. I don't know how to proceed after this.
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@Digvijay Singh – Here, I think this can help..........This is how I solved it......
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@Aaghaz Mahajan – Thanks. Mark Hennings has posted his solution though.
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@Digvijay Singh – Yeah.....I saw it just now.....
I have just posted my solution using contour integration...
Ah, good rendition of Euler's idea to Basel problem! (+1 Helpful)
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Since x n ∼ ( n − 2 1 ) π as n → ∞ , it is clear that ∑ n = 1 ∞ x n − 2 converges. Now, since f ( z ) = z sin z − cos z is an even entire function of order 1 with a double zero at 0 , the Hadamard factorisation theorem tells us that f ( z ) = A z 2 n = 1 ∏ ∞ ( 1 − x n 2 z 2 ) But f ( z ) = 3 1 z 2 − 3 0 1 z 4 + O ( z 6 ) So it follows that. A = 3 1 and S − 1 = 1 0 .