Rolling Down Rolling Down Rolling Down

A Spinning cylinder of mass m = 5 kg m=5 \text{kg} and radius R R , is lowered with the angular velocity ω 0 \omega_0 in the clockwise direction on a rough inclined plane of angle 3 0 30^{ \circ } with the horizontal and coefficient of Friction μ \mu .

The cylinder is released at a height of 3 R 3R from the Horizontal.

Evaluate the total time taken by the cylinder to reach the bottom of the incline (to 3 decimal places).

Details and Assumptions :

g = 10 m / s 2 g = 10 \text{m}/{s}^{2} , μ = 1 3 \mu = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}} , R = 5 m R = 5 \text{m} , ω 0 = 2 rad / s \omega_0 = 2 \text{rad}/s


The answer is 5.242.

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1 solution

First thing to observe is that the maximum friction force is same as the force of gravity along the incline. Hence, as soon as the cylinder is dropped, it will remain stationary and slip until it stops spinning. Then, it will pure roll down to the bottom of the incline.

First, we find time taken in stopping rotation t 1 t_1 . Friction ( F r F_r ) is producing the torque. Hence:

F r R = I α F_rR=I\alpha (alpha is angular deceleration, I I is moment of inertia)

5 m R = m R 2 α / 2 \Rightarrow5mR=mR^2\alpha/2

α = 10 / R = 2 t 0 = w 0 / α = 1 \alpha=10/R=2 \Rightarrow t_0=w_0/\alpha=1

Now we find time taken to pure roll to the bottom t 1 t_1 . Here, friction acting will not be maximum, and will be some value which allows pure rolling. It's easy make equations:

m g s i n ( θ ) F r = m a mgsin(\theta)-F_r=ma

F r R = I α F_rR=I\alpha

R α = a R\alpha=a

Solving the above, we get a = 10 / 3 a=10/3

Since the cylinder is dropped at height 3 R 3R , it has to travel a distance 3 R / s i n ( θ ) = 6 R 3R/sin(\theta)=6R along the incline to reach the bottom. We use equation of motion to get time.

6 R = a ( t 1 ) 2 / 2 6R=a(t_1)^2/2

t 1 = 1 8 0.5 \Rightarrow t_1=18^{0.5}

The final answer is: t 0 + t 1 = 1 + 1 8 0.5 = 5.242 t_0+t_1=1+18^{0.5}=\boxed{5.242}

I understood that net force acting on the cylinder is 0 and hence it will spin without moving centre of mass as soon as it is kept on the inclined plane. Please can you explain me why and how this spinning stops and final angular velocity becomes 0.

Yash Choudhary - 6 years, 3 months ago

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You have pretty much answered your question. The net force cancels out, that is correct. The friction will balance the force of gravity along the incline. But observe that gravity acts through the center of mass, but friction acts on point of contact. Hence, gravity does not exert a torque, but friction does. The torque exerted by friction slows down the cylinder and finally makes it stop spinning.

Raghav Vaidyanathan - 6 years, 3 months ago

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Okay I got it but still I have a doubt. What I think is that the torque exerted by friction should increase its angular velocity because its sense is same as rotation of the cylinder.

Yash Choudhary - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Yash Choudhary I am not able to upload image :( With the help of it you could understand what I am trying to say.

Yash Choudhary - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Yash Choudhary Oh friction depends on direction of inclined plane if the wedge is pointing west then clockwise spin means upward friction and i my explanation above i have taken wedge pointing east hence friction acts downward.This question requires a diagram.

Gautam Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago

I agree that there will be torque due to friction but this is somewhat contradicting. First you said that force of gravity along the incline cancels the force of friction(maximum) it means that friction will act up the incline but afterwards you said that the torque exerted by friction will slow down the angular velocity of cylinder but for that the sense of torque should be opposite to the rotation of cylinder but for that the direction of friction should be down the incline.Now how on earth two directions of friction are possible.This is a big doubt.I and Yash also had a big debate on this but we were not able to get a satisfactory answer for this. PLEASE HELP ME TO RECTIFY MY DOUBT !!!! Thanks in Advance.

Aditya Tiwari - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Aditya Tiwari Okay i get your doubt. Case 1:(releasing cylinder) \text{Case 1:(releasing cylinder)} When we released the cylinder on the inclined the Point A on cylinder moves backwards wrt to B.Hence friction will act down the incline (opp to spin) on the cylinder decreasing it angular velocity.

Case 2:(Puer rolling) \text{Case 2:(Puer rolling)}

When this angular velocity is enough for pure rolling then friction will act upwards as usual.

For more insight try to right eq of translatory motion of COM of cylinder in 1 s t 1^{st} case.Hope this clears your doubt.

Gautam Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Gautam Sharma Well then according to this question, we have to consider CASE 1. And considering it the force of friction is acting down the incline and net force acting on the sphere cannot be 0. It will be gravity + friction. And therefore the cylinder must move some distance down the incline after starting pure rolling.

Yash Choudhary - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Yash Choudhary Well in the above solution we have considered both cases.First when friction act downwards and after that the pure rolling part.

Gautam Sharma - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Gautam Sharma Also it is considered that the wedge is pointing west.

Yash Choudhary - 6 years, 2 months ago

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@Yash Choudhary @Vraj Mehta please give a diagram to the question so that there shall be no more confusion to other people.

Aditya Tiwari - 6 years, 2 months ago

@Raghav Vaidyanathan I am not sure that this is correct because friction could not stop translational motion of the center of mass while decreasing the angular velocity. Until v=wr, friction will act forwards opposite to the direction of rotation

William G. - 4 years, 4 months ago

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