The difference an x x can make

Calculus Level 2

The Gaussian function is the function f ( x ) = e x 2 . f(x)=e^{-x^2}. While its antiderivative cannot be written with elementary functions, its definite integral can still be calculated. e x 2 d x = π \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-x^2}\text{ d}x=\sqrt{\pi} Because of its properties as an even function, we can say this. 0 e x 2 d x = π 2 \int_0^\infty e^{-x^2}\text{ d}x=\dfrac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} But a simple x x can make a big difference. Not only does g ( x ) = x e x 2 g(x)=xe^{-x^2} have a simple antiderivative, but the area under it from 0 0 to \infty is a rational number! 0 x e x 2 d x = A B \int_0^\infty xe^{-x^2}\text{ d}x=\dfrac{A}{B} If A A and B B are positive coprime integers, what is A + B ? A+B\text{?}


The answer is 3.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

10 solutions

Michael Tong
Jan 23, 2014

The integration is quite simple: We use e u d u = e u \int e^u du = e^u with u = x 2 u = -x^2 to get x e x 2 = e x 2 2 \int x e^{-x^2} = -\frac{e^{-x^2}}{2}

Evaluating the improper integral, we get 1 2 \frac{1}{2} as our answer.

Those having knowledge about gamma functions can do it with ease !!

Lalit Pathak - 7 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

No.... I have simply done it by substitution by taking e^(-2x) as t . But really I don't have idea about gamma function till now. I have heared this word first time . Can you please explain it . Thank you. :)

Mohit Kuri - 6 years, 7 months ago

Log in to reply

Gamma function is the extension of the factorial function and is denoted by Γ ( z ) \Gamma(z) . It is also defined by the following improper integral.

Γ ( z ) = ( z 1 ) ! = 0 x z 1 e x d x \large \Gamma(z)=(z-1)!=\int \limits_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{-x}\,dx

Prasun Biswas - 6 years, 3 months ago

Log in to reply

@Prasun Biswas Yes , I am late to post a solution by Gamma function ;)

Nihar Mahajan - 5 years, 4 months ago
Sean Elliott
Jan 24, 2014

To find this integral, we find the antiderivative of e x 2 e^{-x^2} .

First we try just e x 2 e^{-x^2} ; the derivative of this is 2 x e x 2 -2xe^{-x^2} . This is a constant ( 2 -2 ) times what we want, so we divide our original antiderivative by this constant to obtain e x 2 2 -\frac{e^{-x^2}}{2} .

The integral is a continuous quantity, so the question can instead be considered to be lim M 0 M x e x 2 dx \lim_{M\rightarrow \infty}\int_{0}^{M}xe^{-x^2}\text{dx} . From the fundamental theorem of calculus, this is equal to lim M ( e M 2 2 + e 0 2 2 ) = lim M e M 2 2 + lim M e 0 2 2 \lim_{M\rightarrow \infty}(-\frac{e^{-M^2}}{2}+\frac{e^{-0^2}}{2})=\lim_{M\rightarrow\infty}-\frac{e^{-M^2}}{2}+\lim_{M\rightarrow\infty}\frac{e^{-0^2}}{2} As M M becomes arbitrarily large, e M 2 e^{-M^2} becomes arbitrarily small, so the left limit is obviously 0 0 . The right limit is just the limit of a constant, 1 2 \frac{1}{2} , which is that constant.

So, the answer is 0 x e x 2 dx = 0 + 1 2 1 + 2 = 3 \int_{0}^{\infty}xe^{-x^2}\text{dx}=0+\frac{1}{2}\Rightarrow1+2=\boxed{3}

Or... just look at Michael's solution, it has less fluff :P

Sean Elliott - 7 years, 4 months ago

Typo in the first line: you meant to find the antiderivative of x e x 2 . xe^{-x^2}.

Trevor B. - 7 years, 4 months ago
Nihar Mahajan
Feb 12, 2016

We substitute y = x 2 y=x^2 , so we have x d x = d y 2 xdx=\dfrac{dy}{2} , so our integral changes to 1 2 0 e y d x \displaystyle\dfrac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-y} \ dx . Recall that Γ ( n + 1 ) = 0 x n e y d x \Gamma(n+1)=\displaystyle\int_{0}^{\infty} x^ne^{-y} \ dx . So the integral we have got is just n = 0 n=0 . Hence 1 2 0 e y d x = Γ ( 1 ) 2 = 1 2 \displaystyle\dfrac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-y} \ dx = \dfrac{\Gamma(1)}{2} = \boxed{\dfrac{1}{2}}

Moderator note:

From the first line, you should just integrate directly.

To be honest, there's no reason to bring the Gamma function here. In fact, it only makes your solution circular since the usual proof that Γ ( 1 ) = 1 \Gamma(1)=1 is given simply by evaluating the integral form of Γ ( n ) \Gamma(n) for n = 1 n=1 by finding the antiderivative and then applying the integration limits.

Nonetheless, nice effort. +1

Prasun Biswas - 5 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Haha , nice observation. PS I am obsessed with Gamma,Beta function these days.

Nihar Mahajan - 5 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

why not obsessed with zeta function?

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

@Aareyan Manzoor Because I have just started learning it now.

Nihar Mahajan - 5 years, 4 months ago

same method!

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Nice! I did not expect anyone to pay attention to my solution though :P

Nihar Mahajan - 5 years, 4 months ago

Just put x^2 = t. So, 2x*dx becomes dt. Now put this substitution in the integral and solve for 0 to infinity e^(-t)

Chew-Seong Cheong
Sep 25, 2017

I = 0 x e x 2 d x = 0 d d x ( e x 2 2 ) d x = 1 2 0 d ( e x 2 ) = 1 2 [ e x 2 ] 0 = 1 2 [ 0 1 ] = 1 2 \begin{aligned} I & = \int_0^\infty x e^{-x^2} dx \\ & = \int_0^\infty \frac d{dx} \left(-\frac {e^{-x^2}}2\right) dx \\ & = - \frac 12 \int_0^\infty d \left(e^{-x^2}\right) \\ & = - \frac 12 \bigg[ e^{-x^2} \bigg]_0^\infty \\ & = - \frac 12 [0-1] \\ & = \frac 12 \end{aligned}

A + B = 1 + 2 = 3 \implies A+B = 1+2 = \boxed{3} .

Mateus Gonzalez
Feb 20, 2014

I beg your pardon, ladies and gentleman friends, since I cannot edit this properly. I'm using Google's "Daum Equation Editor". So just copy the formulae I wrote and paste them. The program will recognize it.

This is a simple gamma function. Gamma function of a variable 'n' is defined as:

Γ ( n ) = 0 e x x n 1 d x = n ! n \Gamma \left( n \right) =\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { e }^{ -x }\quad { x }^{ n-1 } } dx\quad =\frac { n! }{ n }

If you have:

Γ ( n ) = 0 e x 2 x d x \Gamma \left( n \right) =\int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ { e }^{ { x }^{ 2 } }\quad x\quad } dx

Then we must consider:

x 2 = y d x d y = 1 2 y 1 / 2 d x = 1 2 y 1 / 2 d y S o w e h a v e : 0 d y y 1 / 2 e y 1 2 y 1 / 2 = 1 2 d y e y = 1 2 Γ ( 1 ) = 1 2 × 1 ! 1 = 1 2 S o A B = 1 2 A + B = 3 { x }^{ 2 }=y\quad \Leftrightarrow \quad \frac { dx }{ dy } =\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \quad { y }^{ -1/2 }\quad \therefore \quad dx\quad =\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \quad { y }^{ -1/2 }dy\\ \\ So\quad we\quad have:\\ \\ \int _{ 0 }^{ \infty }{ dy } \quad { { y }^{ 1/2 }\quad { e }^{ -y }\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \quad { y }^{ -1/2 }\quad =\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \quad \int { dy } ^{ \infty }{ { e }^{ -y } }\quad =\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \quad \Gamma (1) }=\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \quad \times \quad \frac { 1! }{ 1 } \quad =\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \\ \\ So\quad \\ \\ \frac { A }{ B } \quad =\quad \frac { 1 }{ 2 } \quad \therefore \quad A\quad +\quad B\quad =\quad 3

Hope it helps y'all. See y'all around!

Ray'kill Paxton
Feb 15, 2014

Just put x^2 = t. So, 2x*dx becomes dt. Now put this substitution in the integral and solve for 0 to infinity e^(-t)

Adhi Anand
Feb 7, 2014

Multiply and divide the integral with -2 to obtain the derivative of –X^2 within the integral. Now integrate the term to get the answer…!

Mulubrhan Desta
Feb 2, 2014

Using Integration by Substitution: let u=x^2, then du=2xdx => dx=du/(2x) Hence, integrate(e^-u)/2 from 0 to inf -e^(-u) from 0 to inf= 1/2 Therefore, 2+1=3.

ITS BECAUSE WE HAVE TO FIND THE SUM OF THE 2 NOS.

Abhimanyu Singh - 7 years, 4 months ago

how it becomes 2+1 from 0 + 1/2 ?..plz explain ..thank uu

nice dreamer - 7 years, 4 months ago
Jatin Hooda
Jan 31, 2014

its a cakewalk, just substitute - x^{2} =t now, -2x(dx)=dt. hence the integral is (integration)(-1/2) e^{t}(dt). (limit from zero to negative infinity) which gives (-1/2)e^{t} as answer. after putting the limits we get 1/2 as our answer. hence 1+2=3..

thank you....

Ripal Patel - 7 years, 4 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...