The Gaussian function is the function f ( x ) = e − x 2 . While its antiderivative cannot be written with elementary functions, its definite integral can still be calculated. ∫ − ∞ ∞ e − x 2 d x = π Because of its properties as an even function, we can say this. ∫ 0 ∞ e − x 2 d x = 2 π But a simple x can make a big difference. Not only does g ( x ) = x e − x 2 have a simple antiderivative, but the area under it from 0 to ∞ is a rational number! ∫ 0 ∞ x e − x 2 d x = B A If A and B are positive coprime integers, what is A + B ?
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Those having knowledge about gamma functions can do it with ease !!
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No.... I have simply done it by substitution by taking e^(-2x) as t . But really I don't have idea about gamma function till now. I have heared this word first time . Can you please explain it . Thank you. :)
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Gamma function is the extension of the factorial function and is denoted by Γ ( z ) . It is also defined by the following improper integral.
Γ ( z ) = ( z − 1 ) ! = 0 ∫ ∞ x z − 1 e − x d x
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@Prasun Biswas – Yes , I am late to post a solution by Gamma function ;)
To find this integral, we find the antiderivative of e − x 2 .
First we try just e − x 2 ; the derivative of this is − 2 x e − x 2 . This is a constant ( − 2 ) times what we want, so we divide our original antiderivative by this constant to obtain − 2 e − x 2 .
The integral is a continuous quantity, so the question can instead be considered to be lim M → ∞ ∫ 0 M x e − x 2 dx . From the fundamental theorem of calculus, this is equal to M → ∞ lim ( − 2 e − M 2 + 2 e − 0 2 ) = M → ∞ lim − 2 e − M 2 + M → ∞ lim 2 e − 0 2 As M becomes arbitrarily large, e − M 2 becomes arbitrarily small, so the left limit is obviously 0 . The right limit is just the limit of a constant, 2 1 , which is that constant.
So, the answer is ∫ 0 ∞ x e − x 2 dx = 0 + 2 1 ⇒ 1 + 2 = 3
Or... just look at Michael's solution, it has less fluff :P
Typo in the first line: you meant to find the antiderivative of x e − x 2 .
We substitute y = x 2 , so we have x d x = 2 d y , so our integral changes to 2 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − y d x . Recall that Γ ( n + 1 ) = ∫ 0 ∞ x n e − y d x . So the integral we have got is just n = 0 . Hence 2 1 ∫ 0 ∞ e − y d x = 2 Γ ( 1 ) = 2 1
From the first line, you should just integrate directly.
To be honest, there's no reason to bring the Gamma function here. In fact, it only makes your solution circular since the usual proof that Γ ( 1 ) = 1 is given simply by evaluating the integral form of Γ ( n ) for n = 1 by finding the antiderivative and then applying the integration limits.
Nonetheless, nice effort. +1
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Haha , nice observation. PS I am obsessed with Gamma,Beta function these days.
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why not obsessed with zeta function?
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@Aareyan Manzoor – Because I have just started learning it now.
same method!
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Nice! I did not expect anyone to pay attention to my solution though :P
Just put x^2 = t. So, 2x*dx becomes dt. Now put this substitution in the integral and solve for 0 to infinity e^(-t)
I = ∫ 0 ∞ x e − x 2 d x = ∫ 0 ∞ d x d ( − 2 e − x 2 ) d x = − 2 1 ∫ 0 ∞ d ( e − x 2 ) = − 2 1 [ e − x 2 ] 0 ∞ = − 2 1 [ 0 − 1 ] = 2 1
⟹ A + B = 1 + 2 = 3 .
I beg your pardon, ladies and gentleman friends, since I cannot edit this properly. I'm using Google's "Daum Equation Editor". So just copy the formulae I wrote and paste them. The program will recognize it.
This is a simple gamma function. Gamma function of a variable 'n' is defined as:
Γ ( n ) = ∫ 0 ∞ e − x x n − 1 d x = n n !
If you have:
Γ ( n ) = ∫ 0 ∞ e x 2 x d x
Then we must consider:
x 2 = y ⇔ d y d x = 2 1 y − 1 / 2 ∴ d x = 2 1 y − 1 / 2 d y S o w e h a v e : ∫ 0 ∞ d y y 1 / 2 e − y 2 1 y − 1 / 2 = 2 1 ∫ d y ∞ e − y = 2 1 Γ ( 1 ) = 2 1 × 1 1 ! = 2 1 S o B A = 2 1 ∴ A + B = 3
Hope it helps y'all. See y'all around!
Just put x^2 = t. So, 2x*dx becomes dt. Now put this substitution in the integral and solve for 0 to infinity e^(-t)
Multiply and divide the integral with -2 to obtain the derivative of –X^2 within the integral. Now integrate the term to get the answer…!
Using Integration by Substitution: let u=x^2, then du=2xdx => dx=du/(2x) Hence, integrate(e^-u)/2 from 0 to inf -e^(-u) from 0 to inf= 1/2 Therefore, 2+1=3.
ITS BECAUSE WE HAVE TO FIND THE SUM OF THE 2 NOS.
how it becomes 2+1 from 0 + 1/2 ?..plz explain ..thank uu
its a cakewalk, just substitute - x^{2} =t now, -2x(dx)=dt. hence the integral is (integration)(-1/2) e^{t}(dt). (limit from zero to negative infinity) which gives (-1/2)e^{t} as answer. after putting the limits we get 1/2 as our answer. hence 1+2=3..
thank you....
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The integration is quite simple: We use ∫ e u d u = e u with u = − x 2 to get ∫ x e − x 2 = − 2 e − x 2
Evaluating the improper integral, we get 2 1 as our answer.