We know that x → 0 lim x sin x = 1 . Is it also true that x → 0 lim x sinh x = 1 ?
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Hahah I should have added a constraint of "pretend you don't know complex numbers". +1
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Then I have to use series expansion or L'Hopital's rule, like what @Guillermo Templado did! ;)
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you're not on slack anyway? I sent you a message last time and I didn't get any response....
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@Pi Han Goh – I closed the tab and could not find where I can open it again......(I am I.T. idiot............)
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@Pi Han Goh – Thanks man! Wait...I have forgotten my password...I am resetting it. See ya on slack! ;)
I'm going to write·3 proofs, please if someone has some doubt or whishes a longer explanation or see some mistake in any poof, tell me...
1.- x → 0 lim x sinh x = x → 0 lim 2 x e x − e − x = (Now, use MacLaurin series : e x ~ 1 + x as x → 0 ) x → 0 lim 2 x 2 x = 1 2.- Use L'Hôpital's Rule : x → 0 lim x sinh x = x → 0 lim 1 cosh x = 1 3.- Use Taylor polynomial at x = 0 .
Let x > 0 , and f ( x ) = e x = 0 ! 1 x 0 + 1 ! 1 x 1 + 2 ! e c ⋅ x 2 = 1 + x + 2 e c ⋅ x 2 with c ∈ ( 0 , x ) ( c is a constant depending on x ) . And let g ( x ) = e − x = 1 − x + 2 e d ⋅ x 2 with d ∈ ( − x , 0 ) ( d is a constant depending on x ). Then, x → 0 lim x sinh x = x → 0 lim 2 x e x − e − x = = x → 0 lim 2 x 1 + x + 2 e c ⋅ x 2 − 1 + x − 2 e d ⋅ x 2 = = x → 0 lim 2 x 2 x + 2 ( e c − e d ) x 2 = (Divide now numerator and denomitor by x) = x → 0 lim 2 2 + 2 ( e c − e d ) x = 1
Your first proof and third proof are the same. We essentially want to find the Maclaurin series (a Taylor series at centered at x=0) of sinh x .
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Yes, that is exactly what I meant. MacLaurin series of sinh x is n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( 2 n − 1 ) ! x 2 n − 1 which radius of convergence is ∞ and we can use it in 1 or 3, or we can make a fourth proof equivalent to these(1 and 3)
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sin x = 2 i e i x − e − i x
sinh x = 2 e x − e − x
So sinh ( i x ) = i sin x
x → 0 lim x sinh x = x → 0 lim i x sinh i x = x → 0 lim i x i sin x = 1