Here is the monster that will give you a nightmare. Compute the following integral ∫ 0 4 π [ ( 1 − x 4 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) ( 1 − x 2 ) ln ( 1 + x 2 ) + ( 1 + x 2 ) − ( 1 − x 2 ) ln ( 1 − x 2 ) ] x exp [ x 2 + 1 x 2 − 1 ] d x
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@Valentina Moy : How about this? :D
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Not bad! I've to admit it so far you're the real gentleman here. Although ln ( − t ) looks awkward but still +1. BTW, I'll post this problem on Math SE, so be there @Pranav Arora . I'd love to see your solution there. One thing, I have upvoted several of your answers there. (>‿◠)✌
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V-Moy, why would you link the Math SE post in the question? It is like giving away the answer.
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@Pranav Arora – I agree, that is just giving the answer @Valentina Moy
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@Mardokay Mosazghi – There is a reason about that. If you are MSE user, you will understand. BTW, I have another monster integral , you may try to solve it. (>‿◠)✌
Thanks Valentina! :)
Ah, so you are the same person who goes by the handle "V-Moy" on SE. Nice to see you here! (◠‿◠)
awesome....great job!!
Sorry but I missed seeing dt in the solution. The denominator in the factored terms in the second integral is (1-x^2)(1x^2) so how is there (1+x^2)^2? Please verify. Thank you
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Got it! Saw it already! Thank you very much! Pranav, you're a genius!
it is quite easy if u know substitutions
my solution is , to the some extent, same as pranav arora but i think it would have had given you a nightmare typing the latex of the question! First combine the logs and factorise all factorisable terms and proceed as the routine method ! and remember when any repeated terms come it's most suitable to put it as y or something you like !
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The problem looks difficult at the first sight. A little simplification makes the subsequent steps obvious.
From the numerator, collect the logarithmic terms first.
∫ 0 π / 4 x ( 1 − x 4 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) + ( x 2 − 1 ) ln ( 1 + x 2 1 − x 2 ) exp ( x 2 + 1 x 2 − 1 ) d x
Rewrite ( 1 − x 4 ) = ( 1 − x 2 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) and divide the numerator by ( 1 + x 2 ) .
∫ 0 π / 4 ( 1 − x 2 ) ( 1 + x 2 ) x ( 1 + x 2 + 1 x 2 − 1 ln ( 1 + x 2 1 − x 2 ) ) exp ( x 2 + 1 x 2 − 1 ) d x
Use the substitution x 2 + 1 x 2 − 1 = t ⇒ ( 1 + x 2 ) 2 4 x d x = d t to get:
4 1 ∫ a − 1 t e t ( 1 + t ln ( − t ) ) d t = 4 1 ∫ a − 1 e t ( t 1 + ln ( − t ) ) d t
where a = π 2 / 1 6 + 1 π 2 / 1 6 − 1
Since ∫ e x ( f ′ ( x ) + f ( x ) ) d x = e x f ( x ) + C , the above definite integral is:
4 1 ( e t ln ( − t ) ∣ ∣ a − 1 = − 4 1 e a ln ( − a ) ≈ 0 . 2 8 4 0 0 7