The one with the log and trigonometry.

Calculus Level 5

Solve the following integral (upto 2 decimal places):

0 π / 2 ln ( sin 2 x + k 2 cos 2 x ) d x \displaystyle \large \int _{ 0 }^{ \pi /2 }{ \ln { ({ \sin }^{ 2 }x+{ k }^{ 2 }{ \cos }^{ 2 }x)dx } }

for k = 12 k=12

Bonus : Generalize the integral for any value of k k


The answer is 5.88.

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1 solution

Saarthak Marathe
Apr 5, 2016

Let the given integral be denoted as,

I ( k ) = 0 π / 2 ln ( s i n 2 ( x ) + k 2 c o s 2 ( x ) ) d x \displaystyle I(k)=\int _{ 0 }^{ \pi /2 }{ \ln { { (sin }^{ 2 }(x)+{ k }^{ 2 } } { cos }^{ 2 }(x))dx }

Now differentiating wrt k k ,

d ( I ( k ) ) d ( k ) = 0 π / 2 2 k c o s 2 x s i n 2 x + k 2 c o s 2 x d x \displaystyle \frac { d(I(k)) }{ d(k) } =\int _{ 0 }^{ \pi /2 }{ \frac { 2k{cos}^{2}x }{ { sin }^{ 2 }x+{ k }^{ 2 }{ cos }^{ 2 }x } } dx

Now integrating the RHS wrt x x by writing s i n ( x ) = 2 t a n ( x / 2 ) 1 + t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) \displaystyle sin(x)=\frac { 2tan(x/2) }{ 1+{ tan }^{ 2 }(x/2) } and c o s ( x ) = 1 t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) 1 + t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) \displaystyle cos(x)=\frac { 1-{ tan }^{ 2 }(x/2) }{ 1+{ tan }^{ 2 }(x/2) } .

Then,by taking t = t a n ( x / 2 ) t=tan(x/2) and solving we get that,

d ( I ( k ) ) d ( k ) = π ( k + 1 ) \displaystyle \frac { d(I(k)) }{ d(k) }=\dfrac{\pi}{(k+1)}

Then,by integrating with wrt to k k we get that,

I ( k ) = π l n k + 1 + c I(k)=\pi*ln|k+1|+c

Now,by substituting k = 1 k=1 in original integral we get that,

I ( 1 ) = 0 = π l n ( 2 ) + c I(1)=0=\pi*ln(2)+c which gives c = π l n ( 2 ) c=-\pi*ln(2)

Therefore the integral is,

I ( k ) = π l n k + 1 π l n ( 2 ) I(k)=\pi*ln|k+1|-\pi*ln(2)

Now by putting k = 12 k=12 we get that I ( 12 ) = 5.88 I(12)=\boxed{5.88}

After differentiating a better approach to solve the integral ,

0 π 2 2 k d x s i n 2 x + k 2 c o s 2 x \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{2k dx}{sin^2x+k^2cos^2x} is to divide throughout by c o s 2 x cos^2x i.e.

0 π 2 2 k s e c 2 x d x t a n 2 x + k 2 \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{2k sec^2x dx}{tan^2x+k^2} , now substitute t a n x = t tanx=t

Aditya Narayan Sharma - 5 years, 2 months ago

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Yes. That can also bee done.

Saarthak Marathe - 5 years, 2 months ago

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There will be a cos 2 ( x ) \cos^{2}(x) as well in the numerator after differentiating.

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 2 months ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member Thank you for the correction.

Saarthak Marathe - 5 years, 2 months ago

I too did the same.Feynman's Trick suits the best in this question.And one can further use Euler's Log Sine integral to determine the constant suiting the boundary conditions. l n ( a s i n x ) d x = π / 2 l n ( a / 2 ) ( x > 0 π / 2 ) \int ln(asinx)dx=π/2ln(a/2)(x-->0-π/2)

Spandan Senapati - 4 years, 1 month ago

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Euler's Log sine integral can again be proven by Feynman's Trick :D

Just a thought , out of 'jee-stuff,' real world integrals rely more on knowledge rather than creativity, ppl many many pre-found heavy machineries for solving an integral.

Harsh Shrivastava - 4 years, 1 month ago

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Ya that's true.There are a hell lot of tricks,eq and jee syllabus is just restricted to the basics of integral calculus.

Spandan Senapati - 4 years, 1 month ago

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