Solve the following integral (upto 2 decimal places):
∫ 0 π / 2 ln ( sin 2 x + k 2 cos 2 x ) d x
for k = 1 2
Bonus : Generalize the integral for any value of k
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After differentiating a better approach to solve the integral ,
∫ 0 2 π s i n 2 x + k 2 c o s 2 x 2 k d x is to divide throughout by c o s 2 x i.e.
∫ 0 2 π t a n 2 x + k 2 2 k s e c 2 x d x , now substitute t a n x = t
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Yes. That can also bee done.
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There will be a cos 2 ( x ) as well in the numerator after differentiating.
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@A Former Brilliant Member – Thank you for the correction.
I too did the same.Feynman's Trick suits the best in this question.And one can further use Euler's Log Sine integral to determine the constant suiting the boundary conditions. ∫ l n ( a s i n x ) d x = π / 2 l n ( a / 2 ) ( x − − > 0 − π / 2 )
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Euler's Log sine integral can again be proven by Feynman's Trick :D
Just a thought , out of 'jee-stuff,' real world integrals rely more on knowledge rather than creativity, ppl many many pre-found heavy machineries for solving an integral.
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Ya that's true.There are a hell lot of tricks,eq and jee syllabus is just restricted to the basics of integral calculus.
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Let the given integral be denoted as,
I ( k ) = ∫ 0 π / 2 ln ( s i n 2 ( x ) + k 2 c o s 2 ( x ) ) d x
Now differentiating wrt k ,
d ( k ) d ( I ( k ) ) = ∫ 0 π / 2 s i n 2 x + k 2 c o s 2 x 2 k c o s 2 x d x
Now integrating the RHS wrt x by writing s i n ( x ) = 1 + t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) 2 t a n ( x / 2 ) and c o s ( x ) = 1 + t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) 1 − t a n 2 ( x / 2 ) .
Then,by taking t = t a n ( x / 2 ) and solving we get that,
d ( k ) d ( I ( k ) ) = ( k + 1 ) π
Then,by integrating with wrt to k we get that,
I ( k ) = π ∗ l n ∣ k + 1 ∣ + c
Now,by substituting k = 1 in original integral we get that,
I ( 1 ) = 0 = π ∗ l n ( 2 ) + c which gives c = − π ∗ l n ( 2 )
Therefore the integral is,
I ( k ) = π ∗ l n ∣ k + 1 ∣ − π ∗ l n ( 2 )
Now by putting k = 1 2 we get that I ( 1 2 ) = 5 . 8 8