Consider the inequality below,
x ! + y ! + z ! > ( x + y + z ) !
For some ordered triplets ( x , y , z ) , the inequality holds. If x , y , z ranges all over integer values from 0 to 1 0 inclusive, find the numbers of ordered triples that satisfy the inequality.
Details and assumptions
The values of x , y , z are not necessarily distinct.
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This solution is incomplete. It makes an assumption that "The given inequality holds when at least two of x , y , z are 0 . ", which is not valid.
How about 1,1,0; 1,0,1; 0,1,1 ?
right answer is 34 not 31
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This is true the correct answer is 34 and I even checked it with a program
So, I had reconsidered the cases, so the correct answer is 34. So, how do I change the correct answer? I am sorry for my stupid mistake and btw, it is my first attempt to submit a problem.
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We are working on a way for you to edit the problem and answer directly. In the meantime, you can send me an email to update your problem.
Note that you should also be receiving clarifications and disputes, which would help you identify such errors. Replying to those emails will also you to update your problem.
The staff has fixed it. :)
@Sujoy Roy,
The given inequality holds when at least two of x , y , z are 0 .
That is true, but you would also need to prove that the inequality only holds when at least two of x , y , z are 0 . But that cannot be proven as it isn't true (see Akshaj Kadaveru and Christine Gamble 's comments).
Now questions are posted without the correct answer?
Aren't x = 0, y=1, z=1 (plus x= 1, y = 1 and z = 0 or x=1,y=0,z=1) also valid? 0! +1!+1! = 3 and (0+1+1)! = 2! = 2
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Of course, it says "ordered" triples, so the answer is actually 12: (0, 0, 0)-(0,0,10), and (0,1,1).
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That is not what ordered triple means. The "ordered" part just means that triples like (1,0,0) and (0,1,0) are different because the order matters. It doesn't mean x ≤ y ≤ z !
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@James Stevens – Oh, okay then. But then the answer should be 34, NOT 31 (10*3 + 1 + 3, accounting for exactly two 0's, exactly three 0's and exactly one 0)
The inequality is strict. No triplet can satisfy strict inequality. You have only solved for equality!!
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After you plug in these triplets, you will see that 0 ! + 0 ! + n ! is always bigger than ( 0 + 0 + n ) ! , since 0 ! = 1 (you should know it) and this implies to 2 + n ! > n ! and another case is 1 ! + 1 ! + 0 ! > ( 1 + 1 + 0 ) ! , since 3 > 2 .
The given inequality does not hold when each of x , y , z is greater than 0 .
Without loss of generality, let x ≥ y ≥ z . Thus, z = 0 .
So, we are left with x ! + y ! + 1 ≥ ( x + y ) !
Clearly, when each of x , y is greater than 1 , the inequality does not hold.
So we have two cases to consider:-
y = 0 . Here, we get x ! + 2 > x ! , which is true for all nonnegative integers.Clearly, for x ∈ [ 1 , 1 0 ] , we get ( x , 0 , 0 ) as an ordered triple. Considering the permutations for x , y , z ∈ [ 1 , 1 0 ] we get 3 0 ordered triplets. But, since ( 0 , 0 , 0 ) satisfies the inequality, we get a total of 3 1 ordered triples for x , y , z ∈ [ 0 , 1 0 ]
y = 1 . Here, we get x ! + 2 > ( x + 1 ) ! , which holds when x is less than 2 . Thus, x = 1 and ( 1 , 1 , 0 ) is an ordered triplet. Considering the permuations for x , y , z ∈ [ 0 , 1 0 ] , we get 3 ordered triplets.
Therefore, 3 4 ordered triplets satisfy the given inequality.
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The given inequality holds when at least two of x , y , z are 0 .
If two of them is 0 , the cases are 1 . x = y = 0 , z = 1 to 1 0 . Similarly 2 . y = z = 0 , x = 1 to 1 0 and 3 . z = x = 0 , y = 1 to 1 0 .
If all of x = y = z = 0 , then 1 solution exists.
So, total cases are 3 ∗ 1 0 + 1 = 3 1