Think Infinite

If the acceleration of topmost block is g k \dfrac{g}{k} , find k k .


The answer is 2.

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1 solution

Ganesh Iyer
May 7, 2016

Please explain your third line i.e T a 1 + T 2 a 2 + T 4 a 3 = . . . . = 0 Ta_1+\dfrac{T}{2}a_2 +\dfrac{T}{4}a_3=....=0 ???

Chirayu Bhardwaj - 5 years, 1 month ago

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That's something called the Virtual Work Method .

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

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You have posted a note i think .

Chirayu Bhardwaj - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Chirayu Bhardwaj Yup, I had. I did not much from the note, but I reshared some problems whose solutions contained virtual work method.

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

Will you please explain it.

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member I'm on tab, so I can't type LaTeX. But I'll surely take the opportunity to help you. Please view the solution to the following question.

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Swapnil Das The solution is of finite pulley system and I did it the same way Satvik Pandey has done but it didn't help me in this question How can we solve questions involving infinite pulley system

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member I think the solution is enough for understanding. Where are you getting stuck?

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Swapnil Das I can't understand why T a 1 + T 2 a 2 + . . . . . Ta_1+\frac{T}{2}a_2+..... is zero

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member 1)For the topmost block, the forces acting are

Mg downwards and Tension T upwards...also it is moving with acceleration a1. a1=(T/m) - g

2) For the second block, the forces acting are

Mg downwards and Tension T/2 upwards...moving with acceleration a2. a2=(T/2m) - g ... ... ... This process continues infinitely... (I.e. Tension for third block is T/4, fourth block is T/8.......)

That's why the terms T/2, T/4, T/8... in the expression...

In pulley system, the sum of the product of acceleration and their respective tension is zero.....

Putting those values in the expression and solving with the help of infinite G.P., we get a1= g/2

Hope, this explanation is much clearer than what I had posted before..

Ganesh Iyer - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Ganesh Iyer This is crystal clear now.

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

@A Former Brilliant Member That's virtual work for an infinite number of strings!

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

The "Rao IIT Academy" Symbol !!! This problem came in one of the recent Rao tests and I presume the problem's picked up from there!

Miraj Shah - 5 years, 1 month ago

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You're probably right. Therefore, the solution isn't original :P

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Actually, even I had written the test.

Miraj Shah - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Miraj Shah Yeah, I took It from the tests only... This question has a flavour of both Maths and physics..and interesting too.. That's why posted it..:)

Ganesh Iyer - 5 years, 1 month ago

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@Ganesh Iyer Ya..its a good question!

Miraj Shah - 5 years, 1 month ago

@Ganesh Iyer This question was famously posted by David Morin, in his perhaps, weekly physics challenges. Nice to relive the moment.

Swapnil Das - 5 years, 1 month ago

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