A toroidal wire coil has the following shape:
x = ( R + r cos ( 1 0 0 0 θ ) ) cos θ y = ( R + r cos ( 1 0 0 0 θ ) ) sin θ z = r sin ( 1 0 0 0 θ ) 0 ≤ θ ≤ 2 π
The coil carries 1 unit of electric current. Let B 1 be the magnitude of the magnetic flux density at point ( x 1 , y 1 , z 1 ) = ( R , 0 , 0 ) , and let B 2 be the magnitude of the magnetic flux density at point ( x 2 , y 2 , z 2 ) = ( 0 , 0 , 0 ) .
What is B 2 B 1 ?
Details and Assumptions:
1)
R
=
4
2)
r
=
1
3)
Magnetic permeability
μ
0
=
1
4)
Only the fields from the coil are to be counted (don't worry about completing the circuit, etc.)
Note: How does the value of B 1 compare to the value given by the standard formula for a toroidal coil magnetic field?
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@Steven Chase it seems that you are not uploading. problems. I just was just seeing in brilliant and see no question is posted. Can you please post more. question in E and M . As I want to time pass
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I have been posting some vector calculus problems. I'll post a new E and M problem when I have an idea
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@Steven Chase Sir thanks for the report .I have corrected the question.
@Steven Chase can you post a question related to Faraday law and EMI. I need practice of that question. Please
Similar solution outline as the solenoid exercise. Specific details are left out.
Consider a point on the solenoid as such:
r p = x ( θ ) i ^ + y ( θ ) j ^ + z ( θ ) k ^ = ( R + r cos ( 1 0 0 0 θ ) ) cos θ i ^ + ( R + r cos ( 1 0 0 0 θ ) ) sin θ j ^ + r sin ( 1 0 0 0 θ ) k ^
An arc length element tangential to the point is:
d r p = ( d θ d x i ^ + d θ d y j ^ + d θ d z k ^ ) d θ
Consider the point of interest at which field is to be computed to be:
r c 1 = R i ^ + 0 j ^ + 0 k ^ r c 2 = 0 i ^ + 0 j ^ + 0 k ^
In general, the point of interest will be denoted by r c . The vector joining a point on the solenoid and the point of interest, and directed towards the point of interest, is:
r = r c − r p
Now, Biot-Savart Law is applied:
d B = 4 π μ o I ( ∣ r ∣ 3 d r p × r ) = f x ( θ ) i ^ + f y ( θ ) j ^ + f z ( θ ) k ^
d B has three components each of which is a function of θ only. This gives three integrals:
B
x
=
∫
0
2
0
0
0
π
f
x
(
θ
)
d
θ
B
y
=
∫
0
2
0
0
0
π
f
y
(
θ
)
d
θ
B
z
=
∫
0
2
0
0
0
π
f
z
(
θ
)
d
θ
B 1 , 2 = ∣ B ∣ = B x 2 + B y 2 + B z 2
I have written a script of code to compute the answer for each case which turns out to be:
B 2 B 1 ≈ 3 2 3 . 4
To numerically integrate to obtain the fields, it was required to set the numerical resolution quite high. In fact, visualising the toroid in a 3D plot itself required a high resolution. Step sizes such as even π / 1 0 0 0 were not adequate. Also, I did not get this right in my initial attempts. I made algebraic errors while computing derivatives and in other intermediate steps.
@Karan Chatrath Sir how do you get your long day streak back???.Did you know how to do time travel???
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Nice of you to show such great interest in my activity. There was a technical glitch which I got sorted with help of the support staff.
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@Karan Chatrath so what solution brilliant staff has taken to resolve these technical glitch problems it can waste the Hard work of your whole year or any person who was increasing his streak??. Did after lost of streak did brilliant community has the power to restore the streak again??
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@A Former Brilliant Member – I did not actually lose my streak. The website showed that I did, and for a while, even I thought it ended. It was a technical issue but now it is fixed. Things like these happen sometimes.
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@Karan Chatrath – @Karan Chatrath As I have done enquiry like a police.Sorry for that if you feel bad. As I want to discuss a topic with you. Can we make time machine. Suppose if we made the time machine so by going in past can we change the present?? It's a very interesting topic. I just want your opinion.
@Karan Chatrath “ Nice of you to show such great interest in my activity ” I didn't understand this line accurately. I am in confusion that you are complementing me or condemn me??
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@A Former Brilliant Member – It is simply an acknowledgement. I do appreciate your interest. There is no underlying implication. As for your question on time-travel, I do not know because my knowledge on the subject is limited.
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@Karan Chatrath has posted a detailed solution. I will post my code, because it shows how to derive the path displacement vector by taking something like numerical difference quotients, thus avoiding messy analytical work. In the middle of the toroid coil, the field matches the standard formula. At the origin, the field largely cancels, but not entirely. I ran the simulation with a wide range of spatial resolutions to ensure that this lack of cancellation was physically real, and not just a numerical artifact.