∫ 0 π / 2 ∫ 0 π / 2 ( 1 + cos ( x − y ) + cos ( x + y ) cos ( x − y ) + cos ( x + y ) ) d x d y
If the above expression can be simplified to α π ψ for some α , ψ ∈ Z ,then:
( α + ψ + 6 ) ( α − ψ ) ! = ?
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I agree with your identities but the question has 1 − c o s ( x − y ) + c o s ( x + y ) c o s ( x − y ) − c o s ( x + y ) which should be equal to 1 + c o s ( x + y ) c o s ( x − y ) − [ c o s ( x + y ) + c o s ( x − y ) ] And after that it is c o s 2 x + c o s 2 y − 2 c o s x c o s y And when you solve after this the integral is equal to 0 . Please check the question once again bro.
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Thanks I have made the correction... There was a typo...
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Welcome, keep posting nice problems!
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@Rudraksh Shukla – Oh.... Thanks... I surely will... :-)
The integrand would have been ∣ cos x − cos y ∣ , which has nonzero integral 4 − π ....
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Hasn't the question been a bit tougher when asked to calculate the same double integral in the question for ∣ cos x − cos y ∣ instead of ∣ cos x + cos y ∣ ..... I don't have a good knowledge of double integrals but anyways is there a way for calculating ∫ 0 π / 2 ∫ 0 π / 2 ∣ cos x − cos y ∣ d x d y ... Most importantly how will that mod sign be removed...
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@Rishabh Jain – Split the square up into the two triangular regions with x > y and x < y , so that ∫ 0 2 1 π ∫ 0 2 1 π ∣ cos x − cos y ∣ d x d y = ∬ x > y ( cos y − cos x ) d x d y + ∬ x < y ( cos x − cos y ) d x d y Each of the "triangular" integrals (which no longer involve the modulus function) can be evaluated iteratively, with ∬ x > y ( cos y − cos x ) d x d y = = = = ∫ 0 2 1 π d x ∫ 0 x ( cos y − cos x ) d y ∫ 0 2 1 π d x [ sin y − y cos x ] y = 0 x = ∫ 0 2 1 π ( sin x − x cos x ) d x 1 − ∫ 0 2 1 π x cos x d x = 1 − [ cos x + x sin x ] 0 2 1 π 2 − 2 1 π Swapping x and y shows that the second integral is equal to the same amount (using symmetry). Thus the total integral is 4 − π .
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@Mark Hennings – Great stuff... Your calculus skills are really great... Thanks for the solution.... :-)
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@Rishabh Jain – Is it intended to confuse? α = ψ = 1. Coz I was a bit nervous there.
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@Ashish Menon – Yep.... ;-)
Could you provide a solution for the same
great question .. thankyou for posting wasnt that difficult as it seems.
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Hehe yeah, its a nice question, way to go @Rishabh Cool
Yep... It appears scary... But just uses some basic knowledge :-)
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∙ cos ( x − y ) + cos ( x + y ) = 2 cos x cos y ∙ cos ( x + y ) cos ( x − y ) = cos 2 x − sin 2 y ⟹ 1 + cos ( x + y ) cos ( x − y ) = cos 2 x + cos 2 y The integration is therefore : ∫ 0 π / 2 ∫ 0 π / 2 ( cos 2 x + 2 cos x cos y + cos 2 y ) d x d y = ∫ 0 π / 2 ∫ 0 π / 2 ( cos x + cos y ) d x d y
= ∣ ∣ y sin x + x sin y ∣ ∣ ( 0 , 0 ) ( π / 2 , π / 2 ) = π
( α + ψ + 6 ) ( α − ψ ) ! = 8 1 = 8