JEE - Trigonometry With k

Geometry Level 2

If f k ( θ ) = 1 k ( sin k θ + cos k θ ) f_k(\theta)=\frac{1}{k}(\sin^k\theta + \cos^k\theta) , f 4 ( θ ) f 6 ( θ ) = M f_4(\theta) - f_6(\theta) = M , where M M is a rational number. Find the value of 1 M \frac {1} {M} .

This Problem appeared in the JEE Mains Examination this year.


The answer is 12.

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16 solutions

Adeetya Tantia
Apr 15, 2014

As the final answer is just a number and independent of theta, that means that the whole expression is true for any and all theta.. So just take theta = pi/2 where sin(theta) =1 and cos(theta) = 0 so u get 1/4-1/6 = 1/12 = M therefore 1/M=12

yes u r ri8..when the answer is independent of variable,it isnt any more an equation or function(depending on the form)....so any value can be digested and fruitfully provides result..

Somnath Mondal - 7 years, 1 month ago

This is not acceptable as a solution but only works for guessing during exams

Vijaysekhar Chellaboina - 7 years, 1 month ago

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Its not guessing, as a number value is assigned to the question, it has to be independent of theta and be acceptable to all values of theta. Its smart thinking, not guess work.

Adeetya Tantia - 7 years, 1 month ago

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Never said it is not smart..in any case, it is nice to show that M is a real number rather than a function of theta. That makes it "complete"

Vijaysekhar Chellaboina - 7 years, 1 month ago

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@Vijaysekhar Chellaboina BTW, rereading the question they made it too easy. Now I am disappointed.

Vijaysekhar Chellaboina - 7 years, 1 month ago

@Adeetya Tantia Correct solution. The above equality, being independent of theta, is an identity. Hence it is true for all values of theta. Cheers!

Anindya Chanda - 7 years, 1 month ago

high 5!!!

Ankit Gupta - 7 years, 1 month ago

why pie by 2 not any other value for sin theta and cos theta..........???

Saurav Sharma - 7 years, 1 month ago

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for easy calculations bro

Saikarthik Bathula - 6 years, 10 months ago

On solvingg ,the trigonometric terms cancelled and 1/12 remains

Kirti Srivastava - 7 years ago

can you manage to prove that?

Ying Xuan Eng - 7 years, 1 month ago

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That the thing, I don't need to prove it, the above expression come down to a single fraction as as stated in the question therefore, it has to be independent of theta, otherwise there would have been an expression of theta in the answer too..
Also, if you want the complete proof, scroll down and look at other solutions where they have manipulated the expressiona dn gt the same answer independent of theta.

Adeetya Tantia - 7 years, 1 month ago

It's a Mains question, so this solution is not accepted!

Dileep Reddy - 7 years, 1 month ago

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They never ask you to show your solutions in the Mains examination. and as time is not a luxury in such exams, this type of smart thinking and solution helps a lot by saving time.

Adeetya Tantia - 7 years, 1 month ago

answer is 12

Lokesh Kumar - 7 years, 1 month ago

True, I solved it using theta=0. Cheers!

Prajwal Seth - 7 years ago

right ......

Saikarthik Bathula - 6 years, 10 months ago

i think the standard of this question was like a poop.....hopeless to say but it shouldn't be terrorizing the 1 million peoples who gave the JEE MAIN... :p

Vivek Routh - 7 years, 1 month ago

Can't believe it's a JEE- Mains question!!!

Shreyansh Vats - 7 years, 1 month ago
Manoj Gowda
Apr 15, 2014

let sin ( t ) = s \sin(t) = s ; cos ( t ) = c \cos(t) = c . 1 4 ( s 4 + c 4 ) 1 6 ( s 6 + c 6 ) = 1 4 ( ( s 2 + c 2 ) 2 2 s 2 c 2 ) 1 6 ( ( s 2 + c 2 ) 3 3 s 2 c 2 ( s 2 + c 2 ) ) = 1 4 1 6 = 1 / 12 \begin{aligned}\dfrac{1}{4}(s^4 + c^4) - \dfrac{1}{6}(s^6+c^6) &= \dfrac{1}{4}((s^2+c^2)^2 - 2s^2c^2) - \dfrac{1}{6}((s^2+c^2)^3-3s^2c^2(s^2+c^2)) \\ &= \dfrac{1}{4}-\dfrac{1}{6} \\ &= 1/12\end{aligned}

LaTeX {\LaTeX} 'ed your solution.

Note: s 2 + c 2 = 1 s^2+c^2=1 because sin 2 θ + cos 2 θ = 1 \sin^2\theta+\cos^2\theta=1 .

Daniel Liu - 6 years, 10 months ago
Vishal Antony
Apr 17, 2014

4 f4 = (sin(r))^4 + (cos(r))^4 6 f6 = (sin(r))^6 + (cos(r))^6

4 f4 can be written as: ((sin(r))^2 + (cos(r))^2)^2 - 2(sinr cosr)^2 = 1 - 2(sinr cosr)^2 6f6 can be written as: ((sin(r))^2 + (cos(r))^2)^3 - 3(sinr cosr)^2 ((sin(r))^2 + (cos(r))^2) = 1 - 3(sinr cosr)^2

[ as (a+b)^3 = a^3 + b^3 +3ab(a+b)]

hence f4 = 1/4-1/2 (sinr cosr)^2 and f6 = 1/6 - 1/2 (sinr cosr)^2

subtracting f6 from f4 we get 1/12

solution is 1/12

no sol is 12

Indrashis Haldar - 7 years, 1 month ago

it's a very smart and simple way

Ahmed ElSadny - 7 years ago

Well done. The easy and efficient solution.

Arsalan Iqbal - 7 years, 1 month ago
Venu Gopal
Apr 17, 2014

It's very simple untill you don't apply the algebric formulae... just use (a+b)^2-2ab=a^2+b^2 and (a+b)^3-3ab(a+b)=a^3+b^3

Vatsalya Tandon
Aug 5, 2015

f k ( θ ) = 1 k ( sin k θ + cos k θ ) \boxed{f_{k}(\theta ) = \frac{1}{k}(\sin^{k}{\theta} + \cos^{k}{\theta})}

f 4 ( θ ) = 1 4 ( sin 4 θ + cos 4 θ ) f_{4}(\theta ) = \frac{1}{4}(\sin^{4}{\theta} + \cos^{4}{\theta})

f 4 ( θ ) = 1 4 ( 1 sin 2 2 θ 2 ) f_{4}(\theta ) = \frac{1}{4}(1-\frac{\sin^22\theta}{2})

S i m i l a r l y , Similarly,

f 6 ( θ ) = 1 6 ( sin 6 θ + cos 6 θ ) f_{6}(\theta ) = \frac{1}{6}(\sin^6\theta + \cos^6\theta)

f 6 ( θ ) = 1 6 ( 1 3 sin 2 2 θ 4 ) f_{6}(\theta ) = \frac{1}{6}(1-\frac{3\sin^2 2\theta}{4})

S u b t r a c t i n g , Subtracting,

f 4 ( θ ) f 6 ( θ ) = [ 1 4 sin 2 2 θ 8 1 6 + sin 2 2 θ 8 ] f_{4}(\theta ) - f_{6}(\theta)= \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{4} - \frac{\sin^2 2\theta}{8} - \frac{1}{6} + \frac{\sin^2 2\theta}{8} \end{bmatrix}

f 4 ( θ ) f 6 ( θ ) = 1 4 1 6 f_{4}(\theta ) - f_{6}(\theta)= \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{6}

f 4 ( θ ) f 6 ( θ ) = 1 12 \boxed{f_{4}(\theta ) - f_{6}(\theta)= \frac{1}{12}}

Vikas Kumar Singh
May 17, 2014

let sint = a ; cost = b ;then ,(a^4+b^2)/4 - (a^6+b^6)/6 = (a^4+b^4)/4 - (a^2+b^2)(a^4+b^4-a^2 b^2)/6 =(a^4+b^4)/4 - (a^4+b^4)/6 + (a^2 b^2)/6 =(a^4+b^4+2 a^2 b^2)/12 = (a^2+b^2)^2/12 = 1/12 so M = 1/12 1/M = 12

Harikesh Yadav
Apr 19, 2014

take any value of theta..(take pi/2 or 0 for convenience) and solve the both eqns.(for k=4,k=6)

Anshuman Upadhyay
Apr 18, 2014

to all those who are saying that it can be solved by substituting theta as pi/2,would you do the same thing if in the equation there was a minus rather than the plus.

Sameer Marathe
Apr 18, 2014

Jee is especially known for giving shortcut in its question or a trap simply put ø 0 and find answer if u r not satisfied putø π÷2

The solution is 12 and it is independent of Theta. This can be solved by rewriting cos and sin with e^(i \theta) and e^(-i \theta). Now use binomial expansion for functions f 4 and f 6 . the rest is straight forward. 6/32-20/192=1/12=M. therefore inverse is 12.

Devasish Basu
Apr 17, 2014

Substitute \sin ^{ 2 }{ \theta } = x and \cos ^{ 2 }{ \theta } = 1.x. Then solve.

Rohit Bhardawaj
Apr 17, 2014

People , Just simplify it , everything cancels out and you get (cos^(theta)+sin^2(theta))/12 = 1/12=M so , M=12.

for values of theta when sin theta is 1 and cos theta is 0, or vice verse we get a rational M, which is 1/12.. for other values of theta, we get M={1-(some irrational number)}/12 = a irrational number.. So the M only takes a constant rational value which is 1/12. .

Mani Raj
Apr 17, 2014

using sin^2 (theta)=(1-cos 2(theta))/(2) and cos^2 (theta)=(1+cos 2(theta))/(2)

I found that derivative of function is 0, so the function is constant. Then I put theta =0. This is a joke for now (but could be useful sometimes). Be happy, do math :)

Rahul Kumar
Apr 17, 2014

as the function is dependant on theta n k. but question is such that the value of theta doesnt matter. so just put theta=0 n substitute

answer is 12

Himanshu Verma - 7 years, 1 month ago

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simple mathematics :)

Himanshu Verma - 7 years, 1 month ago

Exactly what I did

Graham Van Goffrier - 7 years, 1 month ago

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