If f k ( θ ) = k 1 ( sin k θ + cos k θ ) , f 4 ( θ ) − f 6 ( θ ) = M , where M is a rational number. Find the value of M 1 .
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yes u r ri8..when the answer is independent of variable,it isnt any more an equation or function(depending on the form)....so any value can be digested and fruitfully provides result..
This is not acceptable as a solution but only works for guessing during exams
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Its not guessing, as a number value is assigned to the question, it has to be independent of theta and be acceptable to all values of theta. Its smart thinking, not guess work.
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Never said it is not smart..in any case, it is nice to show that M is a real number rather than a function of theta. That makes it "complete"
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@Vijaysekhar Chellaboina – BTW, rereading the question they made it too easy. Now I am disappointed.
@Adeetya Tantia Correct solution. The above equality, being independent of theta, is an identity. Hence it is true for all values of theta. Cheers!
high 5!!!
why pie by 2 not any other value for sin theta and cos theta..........???
On solvingg ,the trigonometric terms cancelled and 1/12 remains
can you manage to prove that?
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That the thing, I don't need to prove it, the above expression come down to a single fraction as as stated in the question therefore, it has to be independent of theta, otherwise there would have been an expression of theta in the answer too..
Also, if you want the complete proof, scroll down and look at other solutions where they have manipulated the expressiona dn gt the same answer independent of theta.
It's a Mains question, so this solution is not accepted!
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They never ask you to show your solutions in the Mains examination. and as time is not a luxury in such exams, this type of smart thinking and solution helps a lot by saving time.
answer is 12
True, I solved it using theta=0. Cheers!
right ......
i think the standard of this question was like a poop.....hopeless to say but it shouldn't be terrorizing the 1 million peoples who gave the JEE MAIN... :p
Can't believe it's a JEE- Mains question!!!
let sin ( t ) = s ; cos ( t ) = c . 4 1 ( s 4 + c 4 ) − 6 1 ( s 6 + c 6 ) = 4 1 ( ( s 2 + c 2 ) 2 − 2 s 2 c 2 ) − 6 1 ( ( s 2 + c 2 ) 3 − 3 s 2 c 2 ( s 2 + c 2 ) ) = 4 1 − 6 1 = 1 / 1 2
L A T E X 'ed your solution.
Note: s 2 + c 2 = 1 because sin 2 θ + cos 2 θ = 1 .
4 f4 = (sin(r))^4 + (cos(r))^4 6 f6 = (sin(r))^6 + (cos(r))^6
4 f4 can be written as: ((sin(r))^2 + (cos(r))^2)^2 - 2(sinr cosr)^2 = 1 - 2(sinr cosr)^2 6f6 can be written as: ((sin(r))^2 + (cos(r))^2)^3 - 3(sinr cosr)^2 ((sin(r))^2 + (cos(r))^2) = 1 - 3(sinr cosr)^2
[ as (a+b)^3 = a^3 + b^3 +3ab(a+b)]
hence f4 = 1/4-1/2 (sinr cosr)^2 and f6 = 1/6 - 1/2 (sinr cosr)^2
subtracting f6 from f4 we get 1/12
solution is 1/12
no sol is 12
it's a very smart and simple way
Well done. The easy and efficient solution.
It's very simple untill you don't apply the algebric formulae... just use (a+b)^2-2ab=a^2+b^2 and (a+b)^3-3ab(a+b)=a^3+b^3
f k ( θ ) = k 1 ( sin k θ + cos k θ )
f 4 ( θ ) = 4 1 ( sin 4 θ + cos 4 θ )
f 4 ( θ ) = 4 1 ( 1 − 2 sin 2 2 θ )
S i m i l a r l y ,
f 6 ( θ ) = 6 1 ( sin 6 θ + cos 6 θ )
f 6 ( θ ) = 6 1 ( 1 − 4 3 sin 2 2 θ )
S u b t r a c t i n g ,
f 4 ( θ ) − f 6 ( θ ) = [ 4 1 − 8 sin 2 2 θ − 6 1 + 8 sin 2 2 θ ]
f 4 ( θ ) − f 6 ( θ ) = 4 1 − 6 1
f 4 ( θ ) − f 6 ( θ ) = 1 2 1
let sint = a ; cost = b ;then ,(a^4+b^2)/4 - (a^6+b^6)/6 = (a^4+b^4)/4 - (a^2+b^2)(a^4+b^4-a^2 b^2)/6 =(a^4+b^4)/4 - (a^4+b^4)/6 + (a^2 b^2)/6 =(a^4+b^4+2 a^2 b^2)/12 = (a^2+b^2)^2/12 = 1/12 so M = 1/12 1/M = 12
take any value of theta..(take pi/2 or 0 for convenience) and solve the both eqns.(for k=4,k=6)
to all those who are saying that it can be solved by substituting theta as pi/2,would you do the same thing if in the equation there was a minus rather than the plus.
Jee is especially known for giving shortcut in its question or a trap simply put ø 0 and find answer if u r not satisfied putø π÷2
The solution is 12 and it is independent of Theta. This can be solved by rewriting cos and sin with e^(i \theta) and e^(-i \theta). Now use binomial expansion for functions f 4 and f 6 . the rest is straight forward. 6/32-20/192=1/12=M. therefore inverse is 12.
Substitute \sin ^{ 2 }{ \theta } = x and \cos ^{ 2 }{ \theta } = 1.x. Then solve.
People , Just simplify it , everything cancels out and you get (cos^(theta)+sin^2(theta))/12 = 1/12=M so , M=12.
for values of theta when sin theta is 1 and cos theta is 0, or vice verse we get a rational M, which is 1/12.. for other values of theta, we get M={1-(some irrational number)}/12 = a irrational number.. So the M only takes a constant rational value which is 1/12. .
using sin^2 (theta)=(1-cos 2(theta))/(2) and cos^2 (theta)=(1+cos 2(theta))/(2)
I found that derivative of function is 0, so the function is constant. Then I put theta =0. This is a joke for now (but could be useful sometimes). Be happy, do math :)
as the function is dependant on theta n k. but question is such that the value of theta doesnt matter. so just put theta=0 n substitute
answer is 12
Exactly what I did
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As the final answer is just a number and independent of theta, that means that the whole expression is true for any and all theta.. So just take theta = pi/2 where sin(theta) =1 and cos(theta) = 0 so u get 1/4-1/6 = 1/12 = M therefore 1/M=12