Let p ( n ) be the number of partitions of n . Let q ( n ) be the number of partitions of 2 n into exactly n parts. For example, q ( 3 ) = 3 because 6 = 4 + 1 + 1 = 3 + 2 + 1 = 2 + 2 + 2 . Compute p ( 1 2 ) − q ( 1 2 ) .
Definition : A partition of an integer is an expression of the integer as a sum of one or more positive integers, called parts. Two expressions consisting of the same parts written in a different order are considered the same partition ("order does not matter").
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This works if partition can have just one element. q ( 1 2 ) includes ( 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 3 ) which corresponds to ( 1 2 ) for p ( 1 2 ) .
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Yes, the element ( 1 2 ) of A 1 2 corresponds to the element ( 1 2 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 , 0 ) of A 1 2 ′ , which in turn corresponds to the element ( 1 3 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 ) of B 1 2 .
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This is really a question of partition definition clarity . Patrick has agreed to change the description, so definition would allow for one element in a partition.
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@Maria Kozlowska – Ah, o.k.. I just read your report and see now what the issue was. :)
It is a known result that the number of partitions of n into exactly k parts is equal to the number of partitions of n where k is the largest part, and this can be proved by a bijection from the Ferrer's diagram. So q(n)=p(n) for all n according to definition of p and q.
Yes, this works, but it would help if you were more explicit about why the result you quoted solves this problem (what is k in this case?).
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p(n)=number of partitions of n and q(n) being the number of partitions of 2n into exactly n parts, that is the number of partition of 2n in which n is the largest element counts all the partitions of the form 2n=n+(...) where the part in (...) can contain any partition of 2n-n=n. So basically we have a bijection between a partition of n and a partition of 2n with n as the largest element because we can transform a partition of n into a partition of 2n by adding n to it, and vice versa by removing a n. So we have a bijection between p(n) and q(n) so that p(n)=q(n). I am sorry for not exemplifying clearly in my previous comment, because in my area I am having connectivity problems and I tried to be as short as I could.
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Perfect. I hadn't realized this earlier. It seems that your bijection and Brian's are actually different, which is a little surprising. I haven't thought about it too much yet.
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@Patrick Corn – Yes, I just read his explanation, and he seems to have used some other bijection that is specific to this problem.
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In general, let A n be the set of partitions of n and B n be the number of partitions of 2 n into n parts.
Now form the set A n ′ , which has the same number of elements as A n but for each element a of A n with fewer than n parts we form a corresponding element a ′ of A n ′ by adding sufficient 0 's at the end of a so that a ′ has n parts. For example, if 2 + 2 + 1 is an element of A 5 then 2 + 2 + 1 + 0 + 0 would be the corresponding element of A 5 ′ . (Any element of A n with n parts remains unchanged when "transferred" to A n ′ .)
Now for each element a ′ of A n ′ we can add 1 to each of the n parts of a ′ to create a partition of 2 n into n parts, i.e., an element b of B n . Also, for each element b of B n we can subtract 1 from each of the parts of b to create an element of A n ′ . So we have a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of A n ′ and B n , which implies that the two sets have the same number of elements.
But since A n and A n ′ also have the same number of elements, we see that p ( n ) = q ( n ) , and thus p ( 1 2 ) − q ( 1 2 ) = 0 .