Useful integral #1

Calculus Level 3

0 π 2 ln ( sin ( x ) ) d x \large \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx

If the value of the integral above equals to π A ln ( B ) - \dfrac\pi A \ln(B) for positive integers A A and B B , find the value of A B A^B .

Try more here! .


The answer is 4.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

3 solutions

Raj Rajput
Aug 25, 2015

@Raj Rajput You wrote all the limits and properties at side. Thats amazing!!Well i did the same too!

Shounak Ghosh - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

Thanks :) :)

RAJ RAJPUT - 5 years, 9 months ago

Thanks a lot! The solution was very lengthy, that's why I didn't upload. U saved my time. Thanks a lot. Do try my other problems.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

The question had already been posted .

Parth Lohomi - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

Can u provide me a link??

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Aditya Kumar here

Parth Lohomi - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Parth Lohomi Actually it is a bit different. I can't waste the efforts of Syed and Raj. So just leave it. I know that both lead to the same answer in same methods.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Aditya Kumar in 0 to π \pi /2 ln ( sin ( x ) ) = ln ( cos ( x ) ) \int \ln(\sin(x)) = \int \ln(\cos(x)) so there exactly same , but let it be , atleast one can see the difference of sin and cos!

Parth Lohomi - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Parth Lohomi Yes that's what I meant to say. I entered the answer in that problem in 2s

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

Thanks and yes i will try :) :)

RAJ RAJPUT - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

I wouldn't if I were you. Just reading his solution made me pass out.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Pi Han Goh Why what happened?? It uses basics in a complicated manner.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Aditya Kumar Really? I would like to see you evaluate H(1/12) manually.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Pi Han Goh is there something that i have made wrong @Pi Han Goh , i thought solution is perfect :P

RAJ RAJPUT - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Raj Rajput pi han was talking about me. One of my solutions wasn't as expected. There's no problem with your solution.

Aditya Kumar - 5 years, 9 months ago

Log in to reply

@Aditya Kumar ok got it :)

RAJ RAJPUT - 5 years, 9 months ago

There is a mistake in your solution,
You have wrote that period of l o g ( s i n ( x ) ) log(sin(x)) is π \pi but actually period of l o g ( s i n ( x ) ) log(sin(x)) is 2 π \pi

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 9 months ago

∫π20ln(sin(x))dx Let's assume the following (eq.1*): I=∫π20ln(sin(x))dx

And we will need this property: ∫a0f(x)dx=∫a0f(a−x)dx

Therefor we can now calculate I: ∫π20ln(sin(π2−x))dx

There is literally a cofunction identity that says: sin(π2−x)=cos(x)

So we can arrive at: ∫π20ln(cos(x))dx

Now by combining eq.1 and the line above, we embark on a long journey: 2I=∫π20( ln(sin(x))+ln(cos(x)) )dx

=∫π20( ln(sin(x)cos(x)) )dx

We will use the following identity: sin(2x)=2sin(x)cos(x)

And get: ∫π20ln(sin(2x)2)dx

Then the log property: ln(AB)=ln(A)−ln(B)

So we get: ∫π20( ln(sin(2x))−ln(2) )dx

Now we split up the equation using simple multiplication: ∫π20ln(sin(2x))dx−∫π20ln(2)dx

We can integrate the right side (ln(2)) first because that is the easiest: ∫π20ln(sin(2x))dx−ln(2)(x)π20

∫π20ln(sin(2x))dx−ln(2)(π2)

Now we are going to use U substitution and should also recognize the symmetry of the sin function about pi/2 (sin(pi/2)=1; think a bell curve): (12)∫π0ln(sin(u))duu=2x−ln(2)(π2)

Note the integral changed, and we can eliminate the .5 that was just added by noticing the following: ∫π0=2∫π20

Thus we can change our integral to: (12)(2)∫π20ln(sin(u))duu=2x−ln(2)(π2)

Since we know from earlier: I=∫π20ln(sin(x))dx

We can say: 2I=I−(π2)ln(2)

Which is reduced to: I=−(π2)ln(2)

Ahah! we have finally arrived at our answer:

∫π20ln(sin(x))dx=−π2ln(2)

Syed Baqir - 5 years, 9 months ago
Syed Baqir
Aug 27, 2015

∫π20ln(sin(x))dx Let's assume the following (eq.1*): I=∫π20ln(sin(x))dx

And we will need this property: ∫a0f(x)dx=∫a0f(a−x)dx

Therefor we can now calculate I: ∫π20ln(sin(π2−x))dx

There is literally a cofunction identity that says: sin(π2−x)=cos(x)

So we can arrive at: ∫π20ln(cos(x))dx

Now by combining eq.1 and the line above, we embark on a long journey: 2I=∫π20( ln(sin(x))+ln(cos(x)) )dx

=∫π20( ln(sin(x)cos(x)) )dx

We will use the following identity: sin(2x)=2sin(x)cos(x)

And get: ∫π20ln(sin(2x)2)dx

Then the log property: ln(AB)=ln(A)−ln(B)

So we get: ∫π20( ln(sin(2x))−ln(2) )dx

Now we split up the equation using simple multiplication: ∫π20ln(sin(2x))dx−∫π20ln(2)dx

We can integrate the right side (ln(2)) first because that is the easiest: ∫π20ln(sin(2x))dx−ln(2)(x)π20

∫π20ln(sin(2x))dx−ln(2)(π2)

Now we are going to use U substitution and should also recognize the symmetry of the sin function about pi/2 (sin(pi/2)=1; think a bell curve): (12)∫π0ln(sin(u))duu=2x−ln(2)(π2)

Note the integral changed, and we can eliminate the .5 that was just added by noticing the following: ∫π0=2∫π20

Thus we can change our integral to: (12)(2)∫π20ln(sin(u))duu=2x−ln(2)(π2)

Since we know from earlier: I=∫π20ln(sin(x))dx

We can say: 2I=I−(π2)ln(2)

Which is reduced to: I=−(π2)ln(2)

Ahah! we have finally arrived at our answer:

∫π20ln(sin(x))dx=−π2ln(2)

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...