Vieta's Formula Troll
Simplify (p-a)(p-b)(p-c)....(p-z) where p is a prime and a,b,c,....,z are real numbers.
The answer is 0.
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1 solution
Lol, good one.
Why is it obvious?a,b ... and z are only a limited amount of variables, so why should one of them be equal to p?Why can't they be something like a = 2 , b = 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 , c = e 2 3 7 8 i . π etc.?
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p = p and the sequence, a,b,c,d,...z will contain p. (p-p) = 0 which leads to (p-a)(p-b)(p-c)...(p-z) = 0
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Why should it contain p?That was my question from before.There is no logical reasoning in your answer
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@Bogdan Simeonov – It is the list of alphabets. Maybe your thinking is a bit different and a,b,c...,z does not contain p. I agree. This problem is therefore a bit ambiguous but still to me a,b,c,...,z would mean the list of alphabets.
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@Ying Xuan Eng – Aaah...Jeez now I get it :D I definitely didn't understand what you meant in the first place .It's not really mathematical, so I guess it is a joke
Obviously, (p-a)(p-b)(p-c)...(p-p)...(p-z) = 0