Pi Han randomly chooses two distinct integers from the set of integers { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 … 9 9 , 1 0 0 } . Let the ratio of the first number to second number chosen be R . If the probability that R < 1 can be expressed as b a for co-prime integers a , b , Find a + b
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The Probability that this question is interesting is 1
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Thanks Buddy! :)
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Looks like you are a fan of brilliant like me. I am also very much online whenever I get time. Unluckily my half yearly are commencing next week, won't get much time for Brilliant :(
Good problem :)
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Thank you.Waiting for your good problem :)
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Haha xD What kind of good problem should I post? I posted two today :P
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@Mehul Arora – Something that is different :)
Disagree. Of the 10,000 ways to combine the two sets of 100 integers, 100 of them are equal. Of the 9,900 left, half are above and half below. That is a prob of .495 and 99 / 200 is the reduced quotation for for a sum of 299. Computer simulation bears this out.
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You also counted the possibilities where the first number is equal to second number.But in this case it is not permitted.
Notice how the numbers you choose do not matter by symmetry. Let's say you choose a , b given that a > b . There are two fractions you can create, b a > 1 and a b < 1 , therefore there is a 2 1 probability that the property holds.
Therefore the answer is 1 + 2 = 3
Brilliant solution!!!!!...!!!!
Same way. The most simplest method
R < 1 translates to "the first number is less than the second number". Consider the two numbers we pick. We pick the smaller one first half of the time, no matter what the two numbers are, so R < 1 half of the time as well. Thus a = 1 , b = 2 , a + b = 3 .
The simplest solution to this problem goes here: For any 2 distinct integers (say a and b) chosen, they can be written either as a/b or b/a. Obviously only one of these fractions is less than unity. Since this is true for all integer pairs the required probability is 1/2.
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Long Method: Lets compute the total number of outcomes first.The first number has 1 0 0 choices and the second has 9 9 choices. Thus by product rule , total outcomes = 9 9 × 1 0 0 = 9 9 0 0 .
Now lets compute the number of R < 1 . When the first number is 1 the second number has 9 9 choices since all the 9 9 numbers are greater than 1 thus making R < 1 . Similarly , When the second number is 2 the second number has 9 8 (we must exclude 1 for R < 1 ). Similarly When the second number is 3 the second number has 9 7 choices and so on When the second number is 9 9 the second number has only 1 choice that is 1 0 0 . Thus outcomes satisfying R < 1 are 1 + 2 + 3 ⋯ + 9 8 + 9 9 = 2 9 9 × 1 0 0
Thus the required probability is 9 9 0 0 2 9 9 × 1 0 0 = 2 1
Shortcut method: If you choose any numbers and compute R , it will be either less than 1 or greater than 1 . Thus the probability that R < 1 is 2 1 no matter how many numbers are in the set.