If a and b are non-zero real numbers with a > b , then a 1 < b 1 .
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Bonus question : Does a 1 < b 1 ⟺ a 2 > b 2 ?
For that example, a=-3 and b=2. A is not greater than B.
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I agree with you. -3 is NOT greater than 2 so the initial condition is not met. They turned the conditions around. They said that a > b. You can't disprove that by saying a is not greater than b. That condition has to be met before the other comparison can be made according to the way the problem was worded.
hahaha... I thought of an exactly similar example dude... what a coincidence.. :D'
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Exactly similar?? What does that suppose to mean? :P
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This is the only possible method to be applied here so everyone who gets it correct must have applied "similar" method
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@Kushagra Sahni – There's a difference between similar and exactly similar.. I actually took only those two numbers which Nihar gave as example in solution. Anyone could choose any positive and negative number for a counter example.
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@Rishabh Tripathi – Yeah I thought of the same but when I read the word similar I thought you meant not exactly same but similar type of example. There is a difference between same and similar just like there is between congruent and similar. Bro I am just kidding even sudeep salgia was so don't take it seriously we are just having fun.
Oxymoron xD
Exactly similar means that I chose those two numbers as my counter example.
Not necessarily, Consider the case when a= -1 & b= 2: -1 < 0.5 .... True. But 1 > 4 .... False.
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But when u take a=-1 nd b=2 you dont satisfy the initial condition itself,that is a has to be greater than b(a>b). In ur example a is not greater than b.
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I think this is a different question where the initial condition is considered to be: (1/a) < (1/b) So we don't care about the relation between a and b. (Sorry for the late reply)
In response to Challenge master note: The answer is no . Simple counter example: − 2 1 < 3 1 ⟺ ( − 2 ) 2 > 3 2 ⇒ 4 > 9 → f a l s e .
The answer for challenge master ys true
The answer for challenge master is true
We could easily answer the question by picking one example like what Nihar Mahajan did:
− 3 1 < 2 1 ⟺ − 3 > 2
which is false .
However, we can also answer the question by remembering the general principle of inequality: If both sides are multiplied by a negative number, then the symbol must be changed.
For example, if x > y , then − x < − y .
Now, how do we go from a > b to a 1 < b 1 ? It only takes one step:
a
>
b
Multiply both sides with
a
b
1
b
1
.
.
.
a
1
The problem stated that a and b are non zero, but it didn't state whether both have the same sign (both positive or both negative). So, a b 1 could be positive or negative. If it is positive, b 1 > a 1 . If it is negative, b 1 < a 1 . No conclusion can be made.
Let us take 1 &-1
1>-1
But 1/1<1/(-1) is not true.
If we assume the inequality holds always, then we can proof by contradiction. We assume a a > b , a 1 < b 1 , though we are allowed to multiply both sides by the same factor. Hence if we multiply by ab, we get a a b < b a b = b < a
Hence a contradiction to our assumption the a >b.
not true at all once B is negative, just having a = 1 and b = -1 makes it false... such a silly question.
A simple counter exemple: a = 1 and b = -1. a>b. 1/1<1/(-1) = 1<-1 is false.
if a = 1/4 and b=-1/8 a > b
but if we make it 1/a=4 and 1/b=-8 then a is still greater than b
Use two negative numbers it doesn't work!!
1/A >1/B =A>B ONLY IF A and B are both positive the case is reversed if sign of anyone of them changes [1/(-4)<1/(-1) does not mean (-4>-1) here (-1>-4)}
a and b should be 1, so it's not necessarily true
If a and b are numbers between 0 and 1 then its not possible.
No if a and b lie between 0 and 1 then it is possible. For example 1/0.5<1/0.25 and hence 0.5>0.25, the only way to condradict this is by taking 1 positive and 1 negative value.
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Simple counter example:
− 3 1 < 2 1 ⟺ − 3 > 2 → false
The statement is true only if both a , b are either positive or negative.