What is this sequence equivalent to?

Calculus Level 3

4 1 4 3 + 4 5 4 7 + 4 9 4 11 + 4 13 + . . . \frac{4}{1} - \frac{4}{3} + \frac{4}{5} - \frac{4}{7} + \frac{4}{9} - \frac{4}{11} + \frac{4}{13} + ...

What is the sum above equal to?

0.05σ (1/20th of the average standard deviation percentage) √2 (Square root of 2) 10/3 (3.333...) φ (The Golden Ratio) 𝛑 (Pi)

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2 solutions

Richard Desper
Feb 5, 2020

The Taylor series expansion or the arctangent function is

arctan ( x ) = x x 3 3 + x 5 5 x 7 7 + x 9 9 x 11 11 + x 13 13 + \arctan(x) = x - \frac{x^3}{3} + \frac{x^5}{5} - \frac{x^7}{7} + \frac{x^9}{9} - \frac{x^{11}}{11} + \frac{x^{13}}{13} + \ldots

Thus arctan ( 1 ) = 1 1 3 + 1 5 1 7 + 1 9 1 11 + 1 13 + \arctan(1) = 1 - \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{5} - \frac{1}{7} + \frac{1}{9} - \frac{1}{11} + \frac{1}{13} + \ldots

But arctan ( 1 ) = π 4 \arctan(1) = \frac{\pi}{4} Thus

4 4 3 + 4 5 4 7 + 4 9 4 11 + 4 13 + = 4 arctan ( 1 ) = π 4 - \frac{4}{3} + \frac{4}{5} - \frac{4}{7} + \frac{4}{9} - \frac{4}{11} + \frac{4}{13} + \ldots = 4 \arctan(1) = \pi

Excellent!

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 4 months ago

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Okay - thank you!

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 4 months ago

@Abdullah Rizwan , you don't need to separate the terms with many pairs of \ ( \ ) \backslash( \quad \backslash) . Just use one pair will do. You can also use \ [ \ ] \backslash[ \quad \backslash] as I have amended your problem.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 1 year, 4 months ago

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Thanks for amending!

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 3 months ago

Doing things this way is a little delicate. The Taylor series for arctan has radius of convergence 1 1 , so just substituting in x = 1 x=1 needs justifying. However, since lim x 1 tan 1 x \lim_{x \to 1}\tan^{-1}x exists and equals 1 4 π \tfrac14\pi , and since the series n = 0 ( 1 ) n 2 n + 1 \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1} converges (it is an alternating series), we get the desired answer using Abel's Theorem.

Mark Hennings - 1 year, 4 months ago
Mark Hennings
Feb 5, 2020

Let's use a direct approach. Note that j = 0 n 1 ( 1 ) j x 2 j = 1 ( 1 ) n x 2 n 1 + x 2 \sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (-1)^j x^{2j} \; = \; \frac{1 - (-1)^n x^{2n}}{1+x^2} for 0 x 1 0 \le x \le 1 , and hence j = 0 n 1 ( 1 ) j 2 j + 1 = 0 1 1 ( 1 ) n x 2 n 1 + x 2 d x = 0 1 d x 1 + x 2 + ( 1 ) n + 1 0 1 x 2 n x 2 + 1 d x = 1 4 π + ( 1 ) n + 1 0 1 x 2 n x 2 + 1 d x \sum_{j=0}^{n-1} \frac{(-1)^j}{2j+1} \; = \; \int_0^1 \frac{1 - (-1)^nx^{2n}}{1 + x^2}\,dx \; =\; \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{1+x^2} + (-1)^{n+1}\int_0^1 \frac{x^{2n}}{x^2+1}\, dx \; = \; \tfrac14\pi + (-1)^{n+1}\int_0^1 \frac{x^{2n}}{x^2+1}\,dx so that π j = 0 n 1 ( 1 ) j 4 2 j + 1 = 4 0 1 x 2 n x 2 + 1 d x 4 0 1 x 2 n d x = 4 2 n + 1 \left| \pi - \sum_{j=0}^{n-1}\frac{(-1)^j4}{2j+1}\right| \; = \; 4\int_0^1 \frac{x^{2n}}{x^2+1}\,dx \; \le \; 4\int_0^1 x^{2n}\,dx \; = \; \frac{4}{2n+1} Letting n n \to \infty we deduce that j = 0 ( 1 ) j 4 2 j + 1 = π \sum_{j=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^j4}{2j+1} \; = \; \pi

A little typo in the R.H.S. of the last step. The approach is excellent.

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 4 months ago

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Brilliant!! I understand apart from the very last part

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 4 months ago

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The last line but one shows that the error between π \pi and the sum of the first n n terms of the series (is less than 4 2 n + 1 \tfrac{4}{2n+1} , and hence) tends to 0 0 as n n tends to infinity. But that is precisely what it means to say that the sum to infinity of the series is equal to π \pi .

Mark Hennings - 1 year, 4 months ago

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@Mark Hennings Oh... I see. Thank you

A Former Brilliant Member - 1 year, 4 months ago

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