Given
3 4 × ∫ 0 π / 2 ( cos x ) 3 2 − 3 d x ∫ 0 π ( sin x ) 3 2 + 3 d x = a 2 + b
for integers a and b , find the value of a + b .
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One could have used B e t a and G a m m a functions as well. Although a nice problem yet again....
That was a nice problem, thanks for sharing Pi Han Goh! :)
I did something similar : Change the limits of integration of the numerator to 0 to pi/2 by using the substitution t=x/2 and basically reparametrizing everything so we get sin(t)^sqrt(2) sin(t)^3 cos(t)^6 (If we bring the denominator term to the top). If we use the substitution sin(t)^2 = y and reparametrize in terms of y, we get an expression of the form $Y^(3/sqrt(2)) Y (1-Y)^2.5 . The only problem seems to be the last term which could possible be simplified by expressing it as (1-Y)^5/(1-Y)^2 . But we have avoiding dealing with the sqrt(2) term in the exponent.
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Ok, you did something much simpler. In your expression, you are just left with sin(x)^6 which is definitely integrable. I am assuming that there would be no problems with bringing the expression on top (Diverging entities, infinities, singularities etc). I did think of splitting the integral on top and then changing cos(x) in the denominator to sin(x) through the pi/2 + x substitution but then there seemed to be too many substitutions
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I just realized that the $t^a(1-t)^b dt seems to resemble a special function possibly the beta function of the parameters a and b
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@Sundar R – I made a mistake. My sheer carelessness, oversight, overeagerness, instead of representing (1-t)^5/2 as sqrt(1-t)^5 or as (sqrt(1-t))^5 , i suggested dividing (1-t)^5 by (1-t)^2 which would obviously just give (1-t)^3. One possibility is to use the taylor formula for (1-t)^p for real p. The other is to use logarithms inside the integral (assuming it can be justified)(possibly using the orthogonality of the terms etc
"For the second integral (on the numerator), we let y=x-pi/2, which equals to the first integral" Isn't there something wrong? Won't the integrand become cosine instead of sine?
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Then replace y ′ = 2 π − y , just like the one on the denominator
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if we put z=pi/2-x in denominator it will reduce to sinz not sinx?
Well, if you don;t remember the reduction formula, use BETA FUNCTIONS!!!!!!
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For the numerator, we split the integral from 0 to 2 π and from 2 π to π
∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 + 3 d x + ∫ 2 π π ( sin x ) 3 2 + 3 d x
For the second integral (on the numerator), we let y = x − 2 π , which equals to the first integral
For the integral in the denominator, we let z = 2 π − x , simplify everything, we get
6 8 × ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 3 d x ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 + 3 d x
Reduction formula, for m ≥ 2
∫ ( sin x ) m d x = − m m − 1 ⋅ ( sin x ) m − 1 ⋅ cos x + m m − 1 ⋅ ∫ ( sin x ) m − 2 d x
Set the limits 0 to 2 π
∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) m d x = m m − 1 ⋅ ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) m − 2 d x
Evaluate
6 8 × ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 3 d x ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 + 3 d x = = = = = = 6 8 × ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 3 d x ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 + 3 d x 6 8 × 3 2 + 3 3 2 + 2 × ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 3 d x ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 + 1 d x 6 8 × 3 2 + 3 3 2 + 2 × 3 2 + 1 3 2 × ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 3 d x ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 1 d x 6 8 × 3 2 + 3 3 2 + 2 × 3 2 + 1 3 2 × 3 2 − 1 3 2 − 2 × ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 3 d x ∫ 0 2 π ( sin x ) 3 2 − 3 d x 6 8 × 3 2 + 3 3 2 + 2 × 3 2 + 1 3 2 × 3 2 − 1 3 2 − 2 − 5 6 2 + 1 1 2
⇒ a + b = − 5 6 + 1 1 2 = 5 6