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Calculus Level 4

0 d x x 4 + x 2 + 1 = a π b c \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{dx}{x^4+x^2+1}= \frac {a\pi}{b\sqrt c}

The equation above holds true for positive coprime integers a a , b b , and c c , with c c being square-free. Find a + b + c a+b+c .


The answer is 6.

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2 solutions

Aaghaz Mahajan
Jun 27, 2019

A = 0 1 x 4 + x 2 + 1 d x A=\int_0^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^4+x^2+1}dx

Now, making a change of variables x = 1 t \displaystyle x=\frac{1}{t} implies d x = 1 t 2 d t \displaystyle dx=-\frac{1}{t^2}dt

Thus,

A = 0 t 2 t 4 + t 2 + 1 d t A=-\int_{\infty}^0\frac{t^2}{t^4+t^2+1}dt

= 0 x 2 x 4 + x 2 + 1 d x =\int_0^{\infty}\frac{x^2}{x^4+x^2+1}dx

= 1 2 1 ( x 1 x ) 2 + 3 d x =\frac{1}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\left(x-\frac{1}{x}\right)^2+3}dx

Now, using the Cauchy Schlomilch transformation,

A = 1 2 1 x 2 + 3 d x A=\frac{1}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2+3}dx

= π 2 3 =\frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{3}}

Thus, a = 1 , b = 2 , c = 3 \displaystyle a=1\ ,\ b=2\ ,\ c=3 making the answer 6 \displaystyle \boxed{6}

@Hamza A This one was easier compared to your other problems......:) (btw, where do you get all these questions from ???)

Aaghaz Mahajan - 1 year, 11 months ago

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Haha! It was intended to be. Sometimes I derive inspiration from math books but this one just crossed my mind, and it wasn't too hard to solve.

Hamza A - 1 year, 11 months ago

That's a very useful transformation. I'm probably missing something obvious, but how do you get from your first line to your second? (Where does the x 2 x^2 in the numerator come from?)

Chris Lewis - 1 year, 11 months ago

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Ohh, well, I transformed the integral by taking x = 1 t \displaystyle x=\frac{1}{t} which implied d x = 1 t 2 d t \displaystyle dx=-\frac{1}{t^2}dt

Now, putting this in the integral, we get

A = 0 t 2 t 4 + t 2 + 1 d t A=-\int_{\infty}^0\frac{t^2}{t^4+t^2+1}dt

= 0 x 2 x 4 + x 2 + 1 d x =\int_0^{\infty}\frac{x^2}{x^4+x^2+1}dx

In the last line I just changed the variable from t t to x x ......Hope it helps :)

P.S. The Cauchy Schlomilch Transformation is actually a special case of the more general Glasser's Master Theorem

Aaghaz Mahajan - 1 year, 11 months ago

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Yep, that helps - quite a big step in your solution!!

Chris Lewis - 1 year, 11 months ago

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@Chris Lewis Sorry!! I have edited my solution now......

Aaghaz Mahajan - 1 year, 11 months ago

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@Aaghaz Mahajan Looks good!

Chris Lewis - 1 year, 11 months ago

What is cauchy schlomilch transformation

gangam aashrith - 1 year, 9 months ago

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It is a special case of the more general Glasser's Master Theorem

Aaghaz Mahajan - 1 year, 9 months ago
Mark Hennings
Jun 27, 2019

We have A = 0 1 x 4 + x 2 + 1 d x = 1 2 R 1 x 4 + x 2 + 1 d x = 1 2 R 1 ( x 2 ω ) ( x 2 ω 2 ) d x = π i ( R e s z = ω + R e s z = ω 2 ) 1 ( z 2 ω ) ( z 2 ω 2 ) = π i ( 1 2 ω ( ω 2 ω ) + 1 2 ω 2 ( ω ω 2 ) ) = π 2 3 \begin{aligned} A & = \; \int_0^\infty \frac{1}{x^4+x^2+1}\,dx \; =\; \tfrac12\int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{1}{x^4 + x^2 + 1}\,dx \; = \; \tfrac12\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{1}{(x^2-\omega)(x^2-\omega^2)}\,dx \\ & = \; \pi i \Big(\mathrm{Res}_{z=\omega} + \mathrm{Res}_{z=-\omega^2}\Big) \frac{1}{(z^2-\omega)(z^2-\omega^2)} \\ & = \; \pi i\left(\frac{1}{2\omega(\omega^2-\omega)} + \frac{1}{-2\omega^2(\omega-\omega^2)}\right) \; = \; \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{3}} \end{aligned} making the answer 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 1 + 2 + 3 = \boxed{6} .

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