Why you love series, Akul?

Algebra Level 5

Akul is immensely amused by the product of some numbers which follow a particular pattern. Mayank loves to add such "pattern-following-numbers"... Akul devises the following quantity:-

k n = ( n 1 ) . ( n 3 ) . ( n 5 ) . . . . . 2 o r 1 ( n ) . ( n 2 ) . ( n 4 ) . . . . . 2 o r 1 { k }_{ n }=\frac { (n-1).(n-3).(n-5).\quad ...\quad .\quad 2\quad or\quad 1 }{ (n).(n-2).(n-4).\quad ...\quad .\quad 2\quad or\quad 1 }

Mayank finds the value of lim n ( 1 e r = 1 n k 2 r ) \lim _{ n\xrightarrow { } \infty }{ (\frac { 1 }{ { e }^{ \sum _{ r=1 }^{ n }{ { k }_{ 2r } } } } } )

Can you guess Mayank's result?

Wanna have more fun with Mayank and Akul. This question is a part of the set Mayank and Akul

2.303 .5 .693 1.477 0 .477 2

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1 solution

Prakhar Bindal
Sep 28, 2016

Its a nice one.

Firstly the sum can be transformed into a telescopic series by writing 1 in numerator as (2r+1)-2r.

All the terms get cancelled except the first which is 1 and last crazy term.

For evaluating last term Take log on both sides and try using Riemann Sums . After Using riemann sums you will realise that the sum will diverge towards infinity as it will be some term containing n will be left in numerator which obviously goes towards infinity

Another method:

note that:

2 π k 2 n = 0 π / 2 sin 2 n x d x \displaystyle \dfrac{2}{\pi} k_{2n} = \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^{2n} x dx

neelesh vij - 4 years, 8 months ago

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Ohh nice Walli's formula!! . Nice :) +1!

Prakhar Bindal - 4 years, 8 months ago

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i said it earlier, see reports :D

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 3 months ago

I did it like this

That sum is actually equal to Σ k 2 r = ( 1 + x ) m 1 \Sigma {k}_{2r} = (1 + x )^m - 1 with x = -1 & m = -1/2 ( when n tends to infinity ) (I derived and then verified also )

Putting values you get sum 1 0 1 = 1 = \frac {1}{\sqrt{0}} - 1 = \infty - 1 = \infty

Hence 1 e = 0 \frac {1}{e^\infty} = 0

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 8 months ago

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i dont remember that binomial expansion. but i should rather its important and can be used in many problems

Prakhar Bindal - 4 years, 8 months ago

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Yeah! Right! Whenever u see that in a series a new no. Is visible in every next term then 1st check for binomial transformation 👍

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 8 months ago

you, my friend , r unfortunately wrong ! undefined and infinity r 2 different concepts ! correct me if i'm wrong ! :D

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 3 months ago

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Its limit , here we deal with tends to not equal to so here 1/0 do tends to infinity... Undefined is the case when we want to equal to as infinity is not defined ! So here everything is fine and correct...

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 3 months ago

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@Aniket Sanghi aaah...ask urself is 1/0 is same as very large number such as 10^1000000^1000000000^10000000........... ?

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 3 months ago

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@A Former Brilliant Member What are talking man! Check limits you will indeed learn 1/0 tends to infinity similarly 1/infinity tends to 0. @Prakhar Bindal Agreed Bro?

Aniket Sanghi - 4 years, 3 months ago

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