Is 0.9999 ... = 1?

Algebra Level 2

True or False?

0.9999 = 1 0.9999 \ldots = 1


Note: The " \ldots " indicates that there are infinitely many 9's.

True False

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60 solutions

Discussions for this problem are now closed

PROOF

Let 0.9999.... = x 0.9999.... = x . Then 10 x = 9.9999.... 10x = 9.9999.... .

Now subtracting the first equation from the second, 9 x = 9 x = 1 0.9999.... = 1 9x = 9 \Rightarrow x = 1 \Rightarrow \boxed{0.9999.... = 1}

Q.E.D.

Moderator note:

Simple standard approach.

Another approach would be to use the Infinite Geometric Progression Sum . We have

9 10 + 9 1 0 2 + 9 1 0 3 + 9 1 0 4 + = a 1 r = 9 10 1 1 10 = 1 \frac{9}{10} + \ \frac{ 9}{10^2} + \frac{ 9}{10^3} + \frac{ 9}{10^4} + \ldots = \frac{a}{1-r} = \frac{ \frac{9}{10} } { 1 - \frac{1}{10} } = 1

The part where you subtracted the equations. That is where you are wrong. The unending trail of 9s cantbe cancelled by another trail. That is just not defined because it repeats infinitely.

Abhishek Dass - 5 years, 12 months ago

do you believe 1/3 = 0.333333333........ if yes then multiply both sides by 3 you would get (1/3)x3 = 3x 0.33333333........ => 1= 0.9999999999.......

Manish Saxena - 5 years, 11 months ago

1/3 does not equal .33333333. That is a lazy approximation.

Chad Sedam - 5 years, 10 months ago

@Chad Sedam What? 1 divided by 3 is 0.3 recurring.

Jefferson Hayden - 5 years, 10 months ago

You are confusing the number of digits of a representation of a number to be the number itself. The digits of π \pi are also infinite. Does that mean 10 π π 10\pi -\pi is not defined?

André Cabatingan - 5 years, 9 months ago

This is why I think it can be cancelled:

now, instead of thinking of an infinite number of 9 9 's, we see it as two 9 9 's:

x 2 = 0.99 x_{2}=0.99 ... , 9 x 2 = 10 x 2 x 2 = 8.91 9x_{2} = 10x_{2} - x_{2} = 8.91

Now, we think of n n 9 9 's:

9 x n = 9 9 × 1 0 n = 9 θ 9x_{n} = 9 - 9 \times 10^{n} = 9 - \theta

As you can see, as n n approaches infinity, θ \theta approaches 0 0 . So as n n approaches infinity, which is what is happening here, it becomes valid to subtract.

Your argument has a flaw. The above is defined despite repeating indefinitely. It is, however, wrong to sum 2 2 diverging sums.

As for your "quotation" of Wikipedia, your argument still remains vague and has not, in my opinion, enabled me to understand your point better. How does it question calculus? And what has your "every possible thing happening around the world for a particular topic" got anything to do with whether an infinite sum exist?

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

Here is why I fell they are not equal.. Equal means exactly equal..and even though the difference is very very less, we cant say them to be equal until they are the exact same figures. To illustrate..

0.00000........infinite times....1 = 0 ??
No.. Also infinite*above no. is indefinite but infinite *0 = 0. So no matter how less the diff.. is we CANNOT say they are equal unless they actually are.

Hitesh Nankani - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Hitesh Nankani "0.00000........infinite times....1 = 0 ?? "

Yes. What you need to realize is that because it is infinite number of zeros, we never get to the place to write down the 1. Ever. And therefore it is precisely 0. Not almost zero, not "tending to" zero, "close enough to be called". Exactly zero. If you always try to think about it in terms of a series of finite approximations which are "really big", you will always miss the key point... we never get to the 1. Ever.

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

Your argument is incorrect, the trails can be cancelled, and it is a valid operation, although the recurring part is infinitely long. See this .

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 12 months ago

Yeah I read the article. Wikipedia refers to every possible thing happening around the world for a particular topic. With all due respect, sometimes it cannot be true. Think of it yourself, if the unending trail could be cancelled, then all the work of Newton and Leibnitz is rendered useless regarding calculus. So what I believe is 0.9999... tends to 1.

Abhishek Dass - 5 years, 12 months ago

@Abhishek Dass It never "tends" to 1, it is 1. If we have a long, but finite string 0.99999.....99, then I accept that it "tends" to 1. Because the string is infinitely long, it is equal to 1. Well, I see that my argument has mathematical rigor. If you think that 0.9999....... ad infinitum tends to 1, prove it yourself. By the way, @Abhishek Dass , I see that you (or we) are nowhere at a stage to question the validity of information provided on Wikipedia. The fact that 0.99999....... = 1 is an important result used in Bayes's Calculus too, and hence you cannot say that this result is a contradiction to work on Calculus.

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 12 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru its tend to be 1 but not equal to 1. for above, we have this notation in Maths ≈, means 0.99999 ≈ 1 . this is true .

Muhammad Ahmed - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Muhammad Ahmed I agree with Muhammed Ahmed, this is an approximation that approaches 1, but that doesn't mean it ever actually reaches 1. It may get infinitesimally close, but unless it can reach 1, it is not 1; it's approximately 1 "means 0.99999 ≈ 1 . this is true ."

Bryan Williams - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Muhammad Ahmed Yes, you are correct that it tends to 1 but not equal. It seems a practical solution for those who believe it equals one would be write out 9.9999...until they reach 1 then reply back to let us know they found 1.

Jerry Wirth - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Jerry Wirth It's basically the same as limit of n -> infinity of 1/n, we will never at which point it will equate to 0, but we do know it equals zero in some shape or form.

Andy Welsh - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Muhammad Ahmed Im Looking for this!

Muhammad Dimas Hertanto - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Muhammad Ahmed No it equals one.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Andrew Wilson if its equal to one then why we need limits and approximation in maths, then no use of this sign " ≈". tell me why we use this????????????????????

Muhammad Ahmed - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Muhammad Ahmed Because 0.99999 0.99999 is not the same as 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 }

0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } has a repetend, and every number that can be represented with a repetend is a rational number. The repetend of 0.99999 0.99999 is 0 \overline { 0 } , while the repetend of 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } is 9 \overline { 9 }

The rational number that 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } represents is 1 1 . It just so happened that the number 1 1 can also be represented as 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } , though this representation is less popular because it's less simpler to write.

I may have been the only one to notice this, but there is a reason why 1 1 can be represented in two ways in Hindu–Arabic numeral system. In decimal notation, if all the digits to the left of the decimal point are 0 0 , the absolute value of the real number being represented doesn't get less than the absolute value of it raised to a positive integer. On the other hand, if not all of the digits to the left of the decimal point are 0 0 , the absolute value of the real number being represented doesn't get greater than the absolute value of it raised to a positive integer. 1 1 neither gets less nor greater than 1 1 raised to a positive integer, which is why it can be represented either way. This is also true even in binary, octal, etc. Just an observation on mathematical notation.

1 0.99999 = 0.00001 0 1 0. 9 = 0. 0 = 0 1-0.99999=0.00001\approx 0\\ 1-0.\overline { 9 } =0.\overline { 0 } = 0

0.99999 1 0.99999\approx 1 , but 0. 9 = 1 0.\overline { 9 } =1 .

André Cabatingan - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Muhammad Ahmed It's not an approximation. It equals 1. It is an infinite number of 9s

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 10 months ago

@Andrew Wilson If I have 1 spec of dust in the universe - lets say its a white spec, and the resy of the universe is black. i.e 0.999999999999999999.....% of all the matter in the universe. Does the spec of dust not exist? Lets make the spec of dust the size of a planet. Does that not exist either.....lets make it the size of a galaxy....again? does that not exist? Youre a complete buffoon mate.

Karl Walker - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Andrew Wilson So when exactly does it stop being 1 and become something else? At what point EXACTLY does it not become 1. You're a complete idiot.

Karl Walker - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Karl Walker Your mistake is that you are thinking of it as a progression of numbers of finite length, looking for the "point" at which it "becomes" the infinite progression. But a finite representation never "becomes" the infinite progression. If you approach it in this fallacious manner, then it will always seem confusing. The important thing is to recognize that the infinite number of 9's is fundamentally different than any finite number of 9's. It is either an infinite number of 9's or it isn't. If it isn't, then it is less than 1. If it is, it is equal to one. Exactly.

There are any number of references and demonstrations that can easily be found online by qualified individuals which will support this conclusion. You don't have to take anyone's word for it here.

Here's a good one for those without much training in mathematics:

http://www.purplemath.com/modules/howcan1.htm

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Karl Walker 0.999... IS exactly 1. It doesn't stop becoming 1. It IS 1.

The "..." is important. It's not a fixed number of 9s, it's infinite.

If they are not the same, you should be able to tell me by precisely how much they differ. Not an approximation, not a "tends to", but an exact number.

So by how much, precisely, do they differ?

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Karl Walker Wow, found the best idiot on brilliant, it is you sir !

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Andrew Wilson In reply to Andrew. Erm.....No it doesnt. I dont know where you learned to do mathematics mate, but 1=1 Try writing 0.99999....... In binary. It certainly is not 1

Karl Walker - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Karl Walker 0.999... is just another way of writing 1. Just as one is another way of wring 1. Just as 1.000000... is just another way of writing 1.

They are the same thing.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru 0.9999..99. Does not tend to zero 0.9999....... Does Because tending 1 does not mean 1 but an infinitesimally small number less than 1, a number which can not be thought of For eg. If u take 0.999999999999999999999 Then also there exists another number which is even more closer to 1. So u cannot say that if it is finite then only it tends to 1. Apparently if it is non finite, then only we can say it tends to 1

Pruthvi Patel - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Pruthvi Patel It is .0001 short of "1".Write a comment or ask a question...

Frederick Gibson - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru Wikipedia can be tampered with by anyone who thinks that they are right. The correct answer is that it does not. Simple if you know your stuff.

Eddie Spollin - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Eddie Spollin I agree with the above statement if it equals to 1 then why is it a completely different number? Infinite or not logic tells me that 0.999999… is not the same as 1 as you can see although in retrospect it still tends to be the same but still different example 1+2=3 whilst 0.9999999…+2=2.999999… and again this new number is similar actually almost the same but to say that it is exactly the same is undoubtedly false . Now try multiplying them and look at what you get 1 2=2 but 0.999999... 2=1.9999999… so it is common for most people to say it is the same simply because it is easier and we are a naturally lazy species but say the numbers are the same goes against the value they both have there is nothing more to be said I hope you all understand this as I have tried to make it as simple as possible but still there are techinicalities which prevale against ;)

Shehan Melanka - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Shehan Melanka Do you agree 1/9 * 9 = 1 Do you agree 1/9 = 0.1111111...... Do you agree 0.1111111...... * 9 = 0.99999999..... 0.99999999...... = 1

Rishu Bagga - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Shehan Melanka If it were a finite stiring of 9s you'd be correct. It's not, it's infinite.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=G_gUE74YVos

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Shehan Melanka In your argument, you have not yet proven that 0.999999... 0.999999... is a different number by saying that 2.99999... 3 2.99999... \ne 3 , since you are already assuming that 0.9999... 1 0.9999... \ne 1 .

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Shehan Melanka It's not a different number. It's the same number written a different way. For example "3" = "30/10" = "27^-3" etc. These number are all "3" even though they are written differently.

David Aronchick - 5 years, 11 months ago

@David Aronchick SO you meant that 1=0.99...9 bcs 30/30 = 1 ?? So tell me how 30/30 = 0.99..9 ?

Muhammad Dimas Hertanto - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Muhammad Dimas Hertanto No, not because. He is simply showing how a particular value can have multiple different representations. 30/30 does equal 0.999... because 0.999 is another way to write 1. To see this, write down the decimal representation of 1/3, and then multiply both representations by 3.

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Shehan Melanka It's not a completely different number. It is a different way of writing the same number.

Just like 3/3 and one both equal 1. The number 0,999... is just another way to write 1.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 10 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru If .9999999 = 1 because .9999999 tends to 1, then it could be said that 0.51 =1 because .51 tends to one. If you can say that, then every increment from .51 to 1.49 could be said to equal 1 because every number in that range tends to 1. An example. If you want to know what 75% of 1 is, you could not use the equation 0.75 x 1 because that would be equivalent to saying that .75 % is 1 x 1. So if you want to know how much 1 is, you can not use the number .99999 because that would only be a percentage of 1. Seems clear to me.

Kenneth Drew - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Kenneth Drew 0.9999999 1 0.9999999\neq 1

It is 10 x 1 10 x \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } that tends to 1 1 as x x approaches \infty , but because x x never reaches \infty , 10 x 1 10 x \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } will always be less than 1 1 .

10 x 1 10 x = 0.9999999 \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } =0.9999999 at x = 7 x=7 .

However, 0.9999999 0.9999999 is not 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 }

0. 9 10 x 1 10 x 0.\overline { 9 } \neq \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } because x x never reaches \infty .

10 x 1 10 x \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } tends to 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } as x x approaches \infty . It does not become 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } . It only tends to it.

In other words, lim x ( 10 x 1 10 x ) = 0. 9 \lim _{ x\rightarrow \infty }{ \left( \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } \right) } =0.\overline { 9 } , but we know that lim x ( 10 x 1 10 x ) \lim _{ x\rightarrow \infty }{ \left( \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } \right) } is also equal to 1 1 , because 10 x 1 10 x \frac { { 10 }^{ x }-1 }{ { 10 }^{ x } } tends to 1 1 as x x approaches \infty .

0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } has a repetend, and every number that can be represented with a repetend is a rational number. The repetend of 0.9999999 0.9999999 is 0 \overline { 0 } , while the repetend of 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } is 9 \overline { 9 }

The rational number that 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } represents is 1 1 . It just so happened that the number 1 1 can also be represented as 0. 9 0.\overline { 9 } , though this representation is less popular because it's less simpler to write.

I may have been the only one to notice this, but there is a reason why 1 1 can be represented in two ways in Hindu–Arabic numeral system. In decimal notation, if all the digits to the left of the decimal point are 0 0 , the absolute value of the real number being represented doesn't get less than the absolute value of it raised to a positive integer. On the other hand, if not all of the digits to the left of the decimal point are 0 0 , the absolute value of the real number being represented doesn't get greater than the absolute value of it raised to a positive integer. 1 1 neither gets less nor greater than 1 1 raised to a positive integer, which is why it can be represented either way. This is also true even in binary, octal, etc. Just an observation on mathematical notation.

1 0.9999999 = 0.0000001 1 0. 9 = 0. 0 = 0 1-0.9999999=0.0000001\\ 1-0.\overline { 9 } =0.\overline { 0 } = 0

0.9999999 < 1 0.9999999<1 , but 0. 9 = 1 0.\overline { 9 } =1 .

André Cabatingan - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Kenneth Drew It's not 0.999999999 though. It's 0.999... The trailing dots are important. It means an infinite number of 9s.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 10 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru Equal?? really?? In class 12 we learn calculus. Read the above comment regarding it.

Hitesh Nankani - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Abhishek Dass Tends to but does not equal

Mohummud Husain - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Abhishek Dass its like an unstoppable force meets an immovable object..

You can say that it tends to 1 or is equal to one but both answers are contradictory to some person's work or some theorem and both the answers support some other theorems.

Achal Goel - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Abhishek Dass I totally agree with you

Hakim Obaidi - 5 years, 10 months ago

@Abhishek Dass Correct it is always tends to Zero But theoratical mathemetics let it proof 1 which is obviously not correct.

Saurabh Chauhan - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Saurabh Chauhan Mind if you elaborate on your "obviously not correct"? Maybe a proof without any flaws?

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

What you have said is that Infinite times x - infinite times x = 0 Hence infinity - infinity = 0 Which is wrong It is a known "not definable" quantity in calculus. 0.999... Tends to one , but is not one

Rhett Dsouza - 5 years, 12 months ago

@Rhett Dsouza Well, I see that my argument has mathematical rigor. If you guys think that 0.9999....... ad infinitum tends to 1, prove it yourselves.

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 12 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru No problem, see my point above

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru Dear Karthik, you know, when we solve a physics problem for instance, we imagine the problem. We think, get the logic right. And in most cases we get the answer straight away. But what if one imagination power isn't strong enough? We use Maths. That's where maths work. It has errors. Many. But somehow it makes our problems easy. And the chances of making mistakes increase. So what I'm trying to say that instead of clinging to mathematical loopholes or things like that, ask yourself. Your heart will say, " Yess!! It really tends to 1 ". You see, maths only comes when you can't get the logic. Do not take me rude please.

Abhishek Dass - 5 years, 12 months ago

@Abhishek Dass https://www.khanacademy.org/math/recreational-math/vi-hart/infinity/v/9-999-reasons-that-999-1

See this

Shailendra Patel - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Shailendra Patel Shailendra, thank you so much for sharing this link. It was quite a breath-taking watch, but brilliant in exploring the problem from every angle. I teach basic numeracy (GCSE Foundation Tier) to adults, so this may be beyond many of them, but I am always looking for ways to stretch my more able learners.

Donald Williamson - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Shailendra Patel best response yet. the greatest conflict I'm noticing in this thread is between a stubborn refusal to acknowledge the subjectivity of math on one side and the unawareness of the subjectivity of math on the other.

Mountain Scott - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Mountain Scott Math is not subjective.

Jacy Henry - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Shailendra Patel This really helped me understand. Thanks!

Esteban Casas - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Shailendra Patel I strongly oppose your "fact" because each proof has its flaws or assumptions. Another video by the same channel as above, https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wsOXvQn3JuE

aneesh kejariwal - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Aneesh Kejariwal You realise that's satire, right?

Jake Lai - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Aneesh Kejariwal Yes, all proof has some flaw or assumption.

Shailendra Patel - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Abhishek Dass yeah, and using your heart, you fail at quantum mechanics. congrats.

btw, in physics, this kind of problem does not even appear, since physics is more about practicality, and hardly has anything to deal with "the exact value". For instance, π \pi to the first 30 30 decimal places is far from enough to calculate the size of the observable universe to an extremely precise measure.

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Julian Poon Yes, exactly ! Thanks for your valuable comments throughout Julian Poon :).

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Abhishek Dass I see no further meaning in trying to explain to you bro.

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 12 months ago

@Abhishek Dass .99999... simply equals 1. His proof was correct.

Adam Bryce - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Abhishek Dass In physics, we look at the problem, conceptualize, solve, and then check the internet to see if we screwed up before handing it in. Do that last step and you will find that all qualified people who internet will disagree with you.

Kaden Bea - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Abhishek Dass I agree with Abhishek. I f 0.99999999...... would be EQUAL to 1, then we would always write it as 1 itself. We just round it off and take it to be 1 for convenience. As Karthik said 'The fact that 0.99999....... = 1 is an important result used in Bayes's Calculus too, and hence you cannot say that this result is a contradiction to work on Calculus.' is just because you can't keep on calculating with an infinite series. So we CONSIDER it to be 1. I hope you would agree that 0.9999....... is less than 1. Now, a number less than another can't be equal to it, right?

Samriddhi Singha Roy - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Samriddhi Singha Roy Mind if you elaborate, how would 0.999... 0.999... be lesser than 1 1 ? Or if not, find a number between 0.99999... 0.99999... and 1 1

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Julian Poon "Mind if you elaborate, how would .9999... be lesser than 1 ? Or if not, find a number between 0.9999... and 1." Beautifully asked.

Adam Bryce - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Julian Poon So .9999... and .9999999.....8 are equal and so is .99......8 and .99...7 so .99...7 and .999... are equal ? wait what?

aneesh kejariwal - 5 years, 10 months ago

@Aneesh Kejariwal No because 0.999... has an infinite number of 9s. 0.999...8 does not.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Julian Poon The thing about infinity is that there is no end. So, no matter how many 9s you add to the end of 0.9..., I can add another zero prior to the 1 at the end of 1 - 0.9... = 0.0...01 meaning the numbers are not equal.

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Samriddhi Singha Roy No. 0.99999..... = 1. Equal.

Adam Bryce - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Adam Bryce Actually better to think practically, rather theoretically. It's true that our brain can't count infinity, so definitely we have no way to confirm 0.999...=1, it always tends to 1. but in practical aspect think of a thing that you are gonna break it in its smallest part , you simply can't as the physical world has its limit of having the smallest part. there will exist a smallest finite part of size lets say (1 x 10 ^-50), so when you accumulate all those small 1 x 10 ^-50 part say 9 parts (an element of size x is broken in 9parts each of size 1 x 10 ^-50) you will get 9 x 10 ^-50 which will make a complete element that is 1(it's not a lazy approach but a practical approach). Here we can say 9 x 10 ^-50=1 for our assumed world.So the result of this question depends upon kind of world and space we are dealing with. And this result will vary accordingly. And this question actually is unique tool for exploring infinite question with all providing different results

Yashasvini Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Samriddhi Singha Roy That's exactly why you're never supposed to write 0.999999......

Rishu Bagga - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Rishu Bagga Actually better to think practically, rather theoretically. It's true that our brain can't count infinity, so definitely we have no way to confirm 0.999...=1, it always tends to 1. but in practical aspect think of a thing that you are gonna break it in its smallest part , you simply can't as the physical world has its limit of having the smallest part. there will exist a smallest finite part of size lets say (1 x 10 ^-50), so when you accumulate all those small 1 x 10 ^-50 part say 9 parts (an element of size x is broken in 9parts each of size 1 x 10 ^-50) you will get 9 x 10 ^-50 which will make a complete element that is 1(it's not a lazy approach but a practical approach). Here we can say 9 x 10 ^-50=1 for our assumed world.So the result of this question depends upon kind of world and space we are dealing with. And this result will vary accordingly. And this question actually is unique tool for exploring infinite question with all providing different results

Yashasvini Sharma - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Venkata Karthik Bandaru Ok, let's see..

0,999... + 0,0010 = 1,0009999... (9 ad infinitum)

1 + 0,0010 = 1,0010000 (zero ad infinitum)

You can use (as you did) many "math apery" to embellish a lie.

Sometimes I ask myself if math translates the world [and the cosmos] as the Pitagorics wanted or if it translates only itself.

I guess the second possibility is more plausible. A clue of that is the fact that we use π (pi) to measure the circles. We are not able to measure circles like we do with poligons.

Ayran Michelin - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Ayran Michelin Exactly! Math is abstract. It does not necessarily represents only what we can understand/represent in a physical way. Even the concept of infinity already messes with the mind of fresh undergraduates. But, for me, 0.9999... is clearly = 1.

Vinícius Melo - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Rhett Dsouza Yes it is incorrect to sum divergent series, which is what you said about infinity - infinity. However, what we are dealing here are convergent series, which your argument does not cover.

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Rhett Dsouza It is 1. Try doing 1 - 0.999...

It's zero as there is no end to the 9s It's not some massive number of 9s it's infinite.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Andrew Wilson So a pair of infinitely sensitive scales with two weights each side. one of 1kg EXACTLY and one with 0.999999-Infinty Kg on the other side with an infinite time period to settle would actually balance exactly for infinty would they? Think you might find you are wrong mate!

Karl Walker - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Karl Walker A 0.999999... KG weight IS a 1 KG weight.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago

At your link it is said - However, these proofs are not rigorous as they don't include a careful analytic definition of 0.999...

Resalat Rajib - 5 years, 11 months ago

I am 100% in agreement with you Abhishek

zac Brown-Duthie - 5 years, 11 months ago

If I go 90% of the way to touching my finger to my nose, I don't touch my nose. I do that again I still don't touch my nose. I do it an infinite number of times and I infinitely never touch my nose. When does not touching my nose equal touching my nose. Never!

Gary Cofer - 5 years, 11 months ago

If you do it an infinite number of times, what distance, precisely, is your finger from your nose?

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago

This has nothing to do with mathematics tho. Anyways, you are never actually touching your nose. The atoms never really touch themselves, so... And by the way, 0.9 is not equal 0.999... :D

Vinícius Melo - 5 years, 9 months ago

divide 0.9999..... by 9 = 0.1111.... divide 1 by 9 = 0.1111..... therefore 1 = 0.9999...

A similar proof to James Munday's below

Cameron Ross - 5 years, 12 months ago

Yes, this is one of the many elegant proofs of this result.

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 12 months ago

then according to you, 0.9999.... divided by 8(or any other number) should also be equal to 1 divided by 8(or any other number)?

Mayuri Parui - 5 years, 11 months ago

Isn't that rounding it off?Because it will always be 0.000...1 lesser than 1.

Timothy Boey - 5 years, 12 months ago

0.0000...1 is not a real number. Why? Well, think about the real numbers. Take any two, and you can find another one halfway between them. So take 0.00...1 and 0. What's halfway between them? Nothing. You could say 0.00...05, but that's 0.00...5. And that's larger than 0.00...1, five times larger. It simply doesn't work.

Alex Bean - 5 years, 12 months ago

Isn't it an infinitesimal, though?

HuGo Sales - 5 years, 12 months ago

@Hugo Sales There is no infinitesimal in the real numbers other than 0.

Alex Bean - 5 years, 12 months ago

When did half a number became 5 times greater? your a decimal place off my friend. if you think its equal why are there no person who writes his age with a string of .99999999.......9?

Aaron Michail Jesoro - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Aaron Michail Jesoro You have an infinite number of zeros then a 1. Then the 1 at the end becomes a 05. Now you have an infinite plus one number of zeros then a 5. But when you add 1 to an infinite amount the infinite amount doesn't change. So you just have an infinite amount of zeros then a 5.

Nobody writes their age as .99999999........9 because:

a) That's too long. Does anyone write their age as 37.0000...? As 74/2?

b) That's 1 year old. 1 year olds don't write their ages.

c) You don't put a 9 at the end. That implies it's finite. It's just 0.99... if you write it that way.

d) That's too many significant figures.

Alex Bean - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Alex Bean Thats an american education at work. No wonder you wont get further than serving at Mcdonalds!!

Karl Walker - 5 years, 9 months ago

@Aaron Michail Jesoro "if you think its equal why are there no person who writes his age with a string of .99999999.......9?"

If you think 1+1 = 2, then why are there no people who write their age as a 1+1?

Ian Myers - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Ian Myers right, about that, why is it that people don't write 10 10 as a representation of 2 2 cause it is correct but in base 2 2 . And similarly, why is it that we don't write e e as n = 0 1 n ! \sum _{ n=0 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ n! } } ? Because it is tedious to write it that way! However, that does not mean that they are not equal

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

You can never put that 1 at the end of 0.000...1. That means it equals 0.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

No, it is not rounding off, and the result is well established.

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 12 months ago

God to say that .999...=1 is to throw away the value of precision or the concept of infinity .999... is .9+.09+ .009+.0009.... to make that into 1+.0+.00+.000 is just defeating the point of the pattern of the number just like .89999999. does not equal .9 you are just rounding up at an infinitely like saying 1/2+1/2^x infinitely gets closer to 1 , .89 can get infinitely closer to 1 but adding infinitely closer points to one.
.999…=∑_(n=0)^∞▒〖1-(〖10〗^(-n))〗≠1

Zack Knutson - 5 years, 11 months ago

If that were true, tell me precisely the answer to this. Not some vague, infinitesimal.

1 - 0.999... = ?

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 10 months ago

This is troubling for two reasons ... first, using fundamental calculus, we know that choosing the exponent x to be real, and positive real numbers (if we want to avoid complex numbers, anyway), that

lim(x→+∞) of a^x is +∞ if a is > 1, 1 if a =1, and 0 if 0<a<1; and lim(x→−∞) of a^x is 0 if a>1, 1 if a=1, and +∞ if 0<a<1.

That is, the limit of any number that is not exactly 1 to an infinite exponent is either 0 or +∞. Therefore, lim(x→+∞) of .9999...^x is 0, and lim(x→−∞) of 0.9999...^x is +∞. These are properties of the number 0.9999... that are beyond discussion ... regardless of any algebraic relationship to the number 1. Therefore, while I can easily concede that the numbers are algebraically identical, they are not absolutely identical. So the question is (with all deference to Bill Clinton, who once asked "what the meaning of 'is' is"), "what the meaning of 'equal' equals."

Second, and more philosophically, physics provides us the Lorentz transformation (or Omega) of (1-v^2/c^2)^1/2 as the factor for observational differences in spacetime as an object approaches the speed of light. All of special relativity relies on the assumption that (v^2/c^2) can never equal 1. Thus, the number, defined by physics as the maximum for that factor is, indeed, and actually, 0.999... . Unless we are ready to rewrite special relativity, we better accept that 0.999... does not equal 1, and move on to the next Brilliant question ....

Dean Leslie - 5 years, 11 months ago

i.e. tends to 1 but never equals to 1. Perfect!

Normando Mendonça - 5 years, 11 months ago

No it equals 1 precisely. The starting assumption is wrong. 0.999... does not belong to the set of real numbers.

Unless you can tell me precisely (the exact number) the answer to this:

1 - 0.999... = ?

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 10 months ago

If it was equal to 1 then it would be written as" 1" . Clearly a fallacy. It approach we 1 but it never is equal. In mathematics it has to be wrong.

Louis Abraham - 5 years, 11 months ago

Just the same way why 1 1 can be written as 1.000000... 1.000000... . Even if something is equal, there might be other ways of expressing it, even when limited to decimal notation. If you insist on your point, mind of you give a more detailed explanation of why 0.99... 1 0.99... \ne 1 ?

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

Ok, let's see..

0,999... + 0,0010 = 1,0009999... (9 ad infinitum)

1 + 0,0010 = 1,0010000 (zero ad infinitum)

You can use (as you did) many "math apery" to embellish a lie. Sometimes I ask myself if math translates the world [and the cosmos] as the Pitagorics wanted or if it translates only itself.

I guess the second possibility is more plausible. A clue of that is the fact that we use π (pi) to measure the circles. We are not able to measure circles like we do with poligons.

Ayran Michelin - 5 years, 11 months ago

This solution is completely incorrect. If you plot the line on x y plane then you will find that the two line will never intersect. By taking value of x arbitrarily you cannot prove your equation

Partha Sarathi Sahoo - 5 years, 11 months ago

If 0.9999..... would equal to 1 you would write just 1 instead of 0.9999.......

According to your logic 0.9999....=1.0000....

Julian De la Cruz - 5 years, 11 months ago

Hilarious. The correct answer is yes, Karthik Venkata writes a cast-iron proof that the answer is yes. Other correct statements are made to prove the answer is yes. Yet STILL people will not accept the simple truth that it is equal to 1. So funny.

David Williams - 5 years, 10 months ago

Let 1/9 = .111111111.....
Then x both sides by 9 then the value is = to 1

Shamari Robinson - 5 years, 11 months ago

No, the second value is not 1, it is .9999...

Chad Sedam - 5 years, 11 months ago

No way can 0.9999 be equal to 1 and the proofs are fallacious. Approximation yes but mathematical exactness, No.

Mangudi Sitaraman Ganesh - 5 years, 11 months ago

That's because we're not talking about 09999 = 1. We're talking about 0.9999... = 1. There's a huge difference.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

From what I can obviously see 1 = 1 . 9999.... ( a d i n f i n i t u m ) = . 9999.... ( a d i n f i n i t u m ) . 9999.... ( a d i n f i n i t u m ) = 1 1 × 10 1=1\\ .9999....\quad (ad\quad infinitum)\quad =\quad .9999....\quad (ad\quad infinitum)\\ .9999....\quad (ad\quad infinitum)\quad =\quad 1\quad -\quad 1\times { 10 }^{ -\infty } And I needed no loophole math to prove it, it just makes sense.

If I was to debate the validity of your math proving .9999..... = 1. I would start at the 10x .9999.... = 9.9999..... If was was more of a math nerd I would theorize something about you never quite converging on 9.9999... but I don't care enough to debate it or think about it.

To all of you who are going to yell at me for being an idiot, whatever, I'm wrong, it's not that important.

PS: Don't use fractions to try to prove this. If you use a fraction you will undoubtedly use a number with an infinite number of decimals. What that infinite number of decimals means is that number will never be quite exactly equal/representative to that fraction, it will always be an infinitesimal amount off.

PPS: If I were to do a limit type thing on that number then I would agree it equals 1. But that limit type thing would do it based on the calculus principle that being infinitely close is the same thing to being equal. Which is exactly what I am disagreeing with now. I agree, it might as well be 1, but it is still not quite 1.

Josh Spisak - 5 years, 11 months ago

It IS 1. Infinitely close means the same as "is".

If you were talking about a huge number of 9's recurring I'd agree. But we're not, we're talking about an infinite amount.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Calvin Lin The approach through Infinite geometric Progression sum is wrongly used in the Challenge Master note. If must be like this:

9 10 + 9 100 + 9 1000 + = 9 ( 1 10 + 1 1 0 2 + 1 1 0 3 ) = 9 ( 1 10 1 1 10 ) = 9 ( 1 9 ) = 1 \frac{9}{10}+\frac{9}{100}+\frac{9}{1000}+ \dots \\ = 9 \left(\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{10^2}+\frac{1}{10^3} \dots \right) \\ = 9 \left(\frac{\frac{1}{10}}{1-\frac{1}{10}}\right) \\ = 9\left(\frac{1}{9}\right)\\ =\boxed{ 1}

Nihar Mahajan - 5 years, 11 months ago

Yes, I too agree ! I didn't notice it XD !

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 5 years, 11 months ago

Yeah, I was about to point that out.

Mehul Arora - 5 years, 11 months ago

Gosh.. how did so many people miss that (including me)... I guess we just turned off?

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

  • 9(1/10 + 1/100 + 1/1000....)
  • 9(1((.1-(.1^infinity))/(1-.1)))
  • 9(1((.1-.000...1)/.9))
  • 10(.099999999....)
  • .9999999...
You assumed that .000...1 is 0, Then .999999...8 and .9999999...7 and .999...66...33...22... are all equal to one, I might be wrong but this does sound like foul play to me.

aneesh kejariwal - 5 years, 11 months ago

This doesn't make sense in the real world. 0.9999 is approximately 1, but no matter how many places after the decimal you care to add, it will always be less than 1. If you were in a spaceship heading to the moon but your course was only 99.9999 ...% correct, you'd probably die, or at the least you'd land somewhere off-target. Add a million 9s after the decimal to your course, then try to reach Proxima Centauri - you won't end up where you thought you would.

Mark Kick - 5 years, 10 months ago

You are correct 0.9999 is approximately 1, and 1 - 0.9999 is 0.0001. They are clearly not the same number. However 0.9999........ (to infinity) is not approximately 1. It IS 1. There is no number between 1 and 0.99999...... therefore they are the same number. It's as simple as that. It does not tend towards 1, it is 1. The algebraic proof given at the top is just that, PROOF. You can't argue with solid proof. You may not like the answer, but that doesn't mean it's wrong.

David Williams - 5 years, 10 months ago

"but no matter how many places after the decimal you care to add, it will always be less than 1"

Correct. But this is the fundamental misunderstanding. If you can identify a "how many", then it is not an infinite number. When it is in an infinite number, then there is no "how many", and the argument is irrelevant.

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

If there is no number 1 it can't be 1 it just keeps going on an.....

Jack Crowe - 5 years, 9 months ago

The most interesting part of this thread is the fact that younger individuals seems to have a better grasp of the "abstractality" of mathematics. (Most correct answers I've seen were from younger individuals (less than 20, not less or equal 20, but less than 20 years old).

Vinícius Melo - 5 years, 9 months ago

The reason this is true is because it as been defined this way. There's nothing keeping you from saying they're not the same - they look very diferent to me :D Now, the problem with 0.(9) is it always breaks something; if you define 1 to be equal to 0.(9) you break the idea that any number can have only one decimal (or any other base) expansion, but if you were to say they do not equal each other, you'd break something slightly more important - algebra. BTW, it is said that they must be equal to each other since 1 - 0.(9) "equals" 0.(0)1 (aka 0.000...1) which is not a "real number"; no it is not, but it is an infinitesimal.

HuGo Sales - 5 years, 12 months ago

but the question is "is 0.99999 = 1 ? " obviously no. ;p

does 0.00000.....1 matters ?

if the question is : " How 0.999...=1 OR Proof 0.999...=1" then its solvable.

ChiFei Soong - 5 years, 11 months ago

9.999... fingers (what ever it means) = 10 fingers

9.999..=10

0.999...=1

ChiFei Soong - 5 years, 11 months ago

I may be wrong, but i just wants to know how can you multiply an never ending number with any other number, and then subtract thinking it is a finite number. If what you did is true then why is it that infinity minus infinity not equal to zero and undefined

Suchith Soman - 5 years, 11 months ago

I'll be looking forward to the email from BRILLIANT about getting my points because upon further review they determined my original answer was correct.

michael bye - 5 years, 11 months ago

It is true that 0.999 = 1 0.999\ldots = 1 .

You will not be getting an email saying that this problem has its answer updated.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 11 months ago

Then what do you have to say regarding 1^(infinity) and .9999...^(infinity) . Thanks.

aneesh kejariwal - 5 years, 11 months ago

Actually 1 is different of 0.999...

You can compare to 2 straight lines: one is 90º and the other is 89.999...º If they are close to each other, and would be equals, then they would never approach or move away from each other. But in this situation, they are not paralel. It will happen somehow.

You can compare to % values. If you got 0.0...1% of chances to get rich for eternity, you would fell hopeful for it. If you got 0% even a small fraction of you, wouldn't be hopeful at all...

however, I don't agree with the answer, even it doesn't changing at all.

Fábio Norio Sugano - 5 years, 10 months ago

It is not true! The only number that is one is one

Jacy Henry - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Jacy Henry Correct. And some ways to write one is 37/37, 0.33+0.67, 100-99, and 0.999...

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

Simply it is not equal to one because it is different than one for every digit "n" in number "x" while n tends to infinity there is a number "e= n-value/10" e>0 such that 1=x+e

Ahmed Elborollosy - 5 years, 11 months ago

Well.. is 0.00000...0001 = 0 then??

Terence Lee - 5 years, 11 months ago

Yes. If you miss off the 1 at the end. And you have to miss off the 1 at the end or it won't be an infinite amount of 0s.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

Let's see ..... can someone tell me the value of x:

x=1-0.999999........

Julian De la Cruz - 5 years, 11 months ago

x=1-0.999999... x = 0

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago

It can go on for infinity but there will always be an infinitely away .1... So cannot equal something where a piece is missing no matter how small. Way away it is so close but never quite there. Maths game like buy at 30 borrow 10 off three friends. Negotiate deal at 25 keep 2 and give 1 back to friends. You owe each 9 so 3 nines are 27 plus 2 you keep is 29. Where is the 1

Philip Richardson - 5 years, 11 months ago

"So cannot equal something where a piece is missing"

What piece is missing? Can you write down the quantity that's missing?

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

Ok, let's see..

0,999... + 0,0010 = 1,0009999... (9 ad infinitum)

1 + 0,0010 = 1,0010000 (zero ad infinitum)

You can use (as you did) many "math apery" to embellish a lie.

Sometimes I ask myself if math translates the world [and the cosmos] as the Pitagorics wanted or if it translates only itself.

I guess the second possibility is more plausible. A clue of that is the fact that we use π (pi) to measure the circles. We are not able to measure circles like we do with poligons.

Ayran Michelin - 5 years, 11 months ago

or you could think of it like this. if you were to give each of your nine friends one piece of a cake, they would each have 1/9 of the original cake. Since 1/9 is equivalent to 0.1111111... if all of your friends returned the piece they took, you would have 9/9 or 0.999999... which simplifies to one.

Brandon Wu - 5 years, 11 months ago

If you stop the expansion of 9s at any finite point, the fraction you have (like .99999 = 99999/100000) is never equal to 1. But each time you add a 9, the margin error is smaller (with each 9, the error is actually ten times smaller).

Paxtakor Rango - 5 years, 11 months ago

That's "if you stop the expansion". But it doesn't stop.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 11 months ago

To lessen some of the confusion in this conclusion, I suggest you introduce the following caveat to the beginning of the question (although I suppose it's a giveaway):

"According to the Archimedean property, ..."

Under this (our conventional) understanding of mathematics, .9 repeating indeed equals 1, but under a hyperreal numerical system it does not.

In other words, you ought to establish the premise before arguing the conclusion.

Michael Berlet - 5 years, 11 months ago

.999... is the absolute closest you can get to 1 without ever actually reaching it, however since the difference is infinately small it may as well be written as 1.

Mark Santee - 5 years, 11 months ago

1=1 No matter the string. Imagine 1/x as x approaches 0. 1/0 does not exist. 0.99999 no matter how long is NOT 1. I do not agree with this argument at all.

s a - 5 years, 11 months ago

That is correct for any finite number of 9's. For the infinite case, there is no "how long" anymore, so any thoughts about "how long" are irrelevant to the situation at hand. This seems to be a very common stumbling block.

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

find product of square root of(-2} and square root of (-5).

bhabesh kar - 5 years, 11 months ago

10 - \sqrt {10}

Mehul Arora - 5 years, 11 months ago

Incorrect notation in the master challenge solution.

Britton Riehm - 5 years, 11 months ago

Write a commen But still .0001 short of 1.

Frederick Gibson - 5 years, 11 months ago

This is related to one fundamental theorem of Real Analysis " Bolzano–Weierstrass theorem" if stated in simple form is that " there are infinite real numbers between any two real numbers"

Arun Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago

This is related to a fundamental theorem of Real Analysis " Bolzano–Weierstrass theorem" if stated simply " between any two real numbers there will be an infinite number of real numbers"

Arun Kumar - 5 years, 11 months ago

x = 0,9999... Then 10x = 9,9999.... This is where it goes wrong, imagine there is n numbers of 9 if you multiply it to 10 then after the comma it will left you n - 1 numbers of 9

Đơn Giản Là Đạt - 5 years, 9 months ago

Both the answers are correct depending upon from which point of view you approach the answer approximation or cold logic both mathematical. comment or ask a question...

Sudhakar Jahagirdar - 5 years, 9 months ago

And what about greatest integer function??? [0.999....]= 0 and [1]= 1 Hence they aren't equal.

Sangeeth K - 5 years, 9 months ago

I dont agree to ur proof at all because it works only when u multiply it with 10. It doesn't prove when u multiply it with any other number. It can be said that 0.99999... = 1 only when every number in number system can prove it according to ur logic.

Vishwa Mitra - 5 years, 11 months ago

The number is not 1 so how is it equal to 1? That's like saying 4.999999... is equal to 5 when it is not because it is not 5. Just because it almost is something, doesn't make it so. They are not the same number or quantity so they cannot be equal even if they are separated by the smallest of amounts. This makes absolutely no sense.

Erykah Lewis - 5 years, 11 months ago

You're right, it is very much like saying 4.999... is equal to 5. Because they are both true statements. They are simply different notations for the same thing, just as 20/4 is 5 and sqrt(25) is 5, so is 4.999... also another way to write 5. If you doubt this, write 1/3 in decimal notation and multiply both quantities by 3.

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

Write a comment or ask a question... But still .0001 short of "1".

Frederick Gibson - 5 years, 11 months ago

this is not one it is always approaching 1 thats like saying 9=10

Jeremiah Simmons - 5 years, 11 months ago

What if God said "no", 'cuz 0.99999....... is rougly 1 just "close to 1" but not exactly 1.

Caeo Tan - 5 years, 11 months ago

Prove it. Or if not, don't use god as your source for support

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

This solution is wrong. The equations that you claim prove it is true, merely cancel out the margin that .9999999... is less than 1 by.

Larry Demars - 5 years, 11 months ago

Seems like a trick question, not a serious one.

Kantesh Guttal - 5 years, 9 months ago

No... Maybe depending on application it's close enough but it's not equal.

Jeff Wallace - 5 years, 12 months ago

Karthik Venkata is right. 0.999... = 1. Not approximately, not rounding, not tending towards... but precisely equal. If you disagree, you need higher level math course work to study. It's a proven mathematical statement. It's as proven as the square root of 2 is irrational.

Nathan Hall - 5 years, 12 months ago

yeah higher education tells us that 2-1= 0.99999....9. USA has 0.999999.....9 president as of now

Aaron Michail Jesoro - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Aaron Michail Jesoro Since 1/3 + 2/3 is the same as 0.333... + 0.666..., then the two statements are equivalent. Thus 1/3+2/3=0.333...+0.666... Add the terms on each side becomes 3/3=0.999... Hence 1=0.999...

Nathan Hall - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Nathan Hall Very good -- this is yet another elegant proof, and thank you for posting!

0.999... is not 'nearly' 1.0 or 'tending to' 1.0; it is equal to 1.0.

Paul Schafer - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Nathan Hall this is the 1st solution to this that has made sense. thank you. also, not looking for a long winded debate; but just because someone doesn't understand 1 problem doesnt mean they are uneducated or "need a higher level math course work" they just need a solution that makes things click...like yours did for me! Thanks for the simplified solution!

michael bye - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Aaron Michail Jesoro No, not 0.99999...9 presidents, but 0.9999... presidents.

Iain Moal - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Aaron Michail Jesoro We're not talking about 0.999999.....9. We're talking about 0.999999.... There is no ending 9.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

I guess I do. Some sort of course that allows you to disregard logic. Methods for manipulating the matrix. Red pill or blue pill?

Jeff Wallace - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Jeff Wallace To deny logic is to deny 0.999...=1. Logic dictates that this is true.

Since 1/3 + 2/3 is the same as 0.333... + 0.666..., then the two statements are equivalent. Thus 1/3+2/3=0.333...+0.666... Add the terms on each side becomes 3/3=0.999... Hence 1=0.999...

Nathan Hall - 5 years, 11 months ago

DEPENDING on application? In any application in any example in the entire physical universe, it is the same. The only room for argument lies in the mathematical realm alone. We can not measure an infinitesimal difference in the real world. Because of this fact, and the fact that mathematics is useless in applications where it has no use, it makes no sense to adopt a model where the two represent immeasurably different values.

Kaden Bea - 5 years, 11 months ago

By the same logic 1=2. Just adjust your scale of numbering so that in comparison 1 is insignificant. \­( \infty + 1 = \infty + 2 ) so 1 = 2. When written down they look different, but for any application in the entire physical universe it is the same.

Jeff Wallace - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Jeff Wallace It is indeed wrong to sum 2 2 divergent series, as reflected in your point. However, it is valid to sum 2 2 convergent series.

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

The right answer is, 0.9999.... is NEARLY equal to 1 but NOT EQUAL to 1. If it was EQUAL then there is no meaning for " = " operator its meaningless EQUAL is STRICTLY equal. Well okay so your saying 0.9999 = 1 ..Apply greatest integer function.. u get diff results.

Ramnath Amith - 5 years, 11 months ago

If you substract 0.99999....99 from 1 you will have 0.000000000...001 that is different. From 0.

Francisco Gallego - 5 years, 11 months ago

Actually not quite, because you got to the place where you wrote down 1, which means it was not an infinite number of zeros, which means it was not an infinite number of 9's. When you realize that in the infinite case you never (not after a really really long time, but ever!) get to write down the 1, you'll realize that it is in fact precisely zero.

The fundamental misunderstanding that throws everybody off here is that you can understand the properties of 0.999... by looking at "really long" approximations to it that terminate. When you consider the case where it doesn't terminate, the behavior changes in a very important way that you will never see by looking at successive finite approximations.

Robert Anderson - 5 years, 9 months ago

We're not talking about 0.99999....99, we're talking about 0.999...

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

what ever... you followed my idea...

Francisco Gallego - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Francisco Gallego Yes. I followed your idea, but it was wrong.

0.999... and 0.999...99 are fundamentally different numbers.

0.999...99 is not equal to 1. 0.999... is equal to 1.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago

This is false.

Jacy Henry - 5 years, 11 months ago

maybe 0.999999... ≈ (approximately equal to) 1. but 0.99999.. is never equal to 1.

Jezreel Alfeche - 5 years, 11 months ago

There is no need to post 3 duplicates of the same comment. What I think is that 0.999... = 1 0.999...=1 , see my point above. If not, here's a challenge: Find a number between 0.9999... 0.9999... and 1 1 .

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

Simple flaw you missed.. x=0.9999 then 10x = 9.999 & not 9.9999.....!!!

Anirban Chakraborty - 5 years, 11 months ago

You have ignored the approximations in your proofs. 0.999.... could be considered 1 for all practical reasons, or by the approximations that calculus offers, but DOES NOT EQUAL 1 with the laws of number theory or inifinity

Nithya Ramakrishnan - 5 years, 11 months ago

No it's wrong. If x= .9999999 and so on then 10x= 9.999999 and so on. I mean one less 9 will be there in the answer and you can not get the subtraction result as 9. if x=.9999999 then 10x= 9.999999 and the difference is 8.9999991.

Arindam Biswas - 5 years, 11 months ago

1 is equal to 1. .9999999999999999999999999999 is not one its .9999999999999999999999. question should be taken out.

Manu Duarte - 5 years, 11 months ago

.9999 is emphatically NOT equal to 1. Ask any geneticist. Sloppy math, and shouldn't be here.

Matthew Randles - 5 years, 9 months ago

Well in our world 0.9999 recurring is about the same as 1. However if you were travelling in space for a trillion miles then 1 trillion and 0.9999... trillion miles would be noticeably different.

Charlie Tame - 5 years, 11 months ago

No it wouldn't as there's an infinite amount of 9s in that number. It's the infinite part that matters.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

Let's use a practical example.

If you travelled 1 trillion miles. How far away from 1 trillion miles would 0.999... of a trillion miles be from a trillion miles?

p.s. If you are right, you should be able to give me an exact number.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

If we are using math, then yes. .9999 equals one. However, in science it does not

Rebecca Longpre - 5 years, 11 months ago

Its not equal, besides you honestly believe everything written in wikipedia. Anyone can edit that. If they are equal 1 -0.9999999.... Should not have an answer unforyunatey it does

Aaron Michail Jesoro - 5 years, 11 months ago

the fact that Wikipedia can be edited by everyone is one of the driving reasons that it is typically correct

Dennis Smith - 5 years, 9 months ago

for me 0.9999.... can't be equal to one.. because even though how many 9 we put in end their is a missing .00000000....00001 that will make it equal to 1. having that computation above will give way to find the missing .00000000....00001 therefore tricking us by looking that they are really equal.

for me, this argument is like an asymptote (gets near but cant really meet 0) and parellel lines (doesnt meet each other.)

edjoy rodelas - 5 years, 11 months ago

There is no missing 00000000....00001 as there is no ending 1 at all.

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 11 months ago

WTF. You don't need calculus or physics to prove that 1 is not equal to .9999..... My 6 year old son only used subtraction to prove it. 1-1=0, 1-.9999=.0001 and .0001 is definitely not equal to zero. Your calculator will show you that.

Nick Rejas - 5 years, 11 months ago

there are not 4 9's, there is infinitely many 9's

Dennis Smith - 5 years, 9 months ago

Calculators do not show the exact values, and here we are not talking about a finite number of 9 9 's, we are talking about an infinite number of 9 9 's.

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

I see the school system has failed you. Math don't work that way son.

Jacy Henry - 5 years, 11 months ago

No problem! But I see your arguments come without any evidence. Also, mind your language, it reflects bad on you.

I'd really like to know your idea of how maths work. By the way, are you really 30 30 ?

This is a discussion, if you have nothing constructive to contribute, don't.

Julian Poon - 5 years, 11 months ago

Equal = Equal, that simple.

Jacy Henry - 5 years, 11 months ago

@Jacy Henry I find it really hard to believe you are older than me. If you aim to convince me, do a better job at it.

Julian Poon - 5 years, 10 months ago

This is bogus I don't know what kind of math you Indians learn but those are not equal.

Jacy Henry - 5 years, 11 months ago

Please be respectful of others. There is nothing wrong with the solution.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 11 months ago
Chew-Seong Cheong
Jun 10, 2015

The easiest way to show this is:

8 9 + 1 9 = 0.888... + 0.111... 9 9 = 0.999... 1 = 0.999... \begin{aligned} \frac{8}{9} + \frac{1}{9} & = 0.888... + 0.111... \\ \Rightarrow \frac{9}{9} & = 0.999... \\ \Rightarrow & \boxed{1 = 0.999...} \end{aligned}

Another way is by induction:

1 9 = 0.111... 2 9 = 0.222... 3 9 = 0.333... . . . . . . 8 9 = 0.888... 9 9 = 0.999... 1 = 0.999... \begin{array}{c}\dfrac{1}{9} = 0.111... & \dfrac{2}{9} = 0.222... & \dfrac{3}{9} = 0.333... & ... \quad ... \\ \dfrac{8}{9} = 0.888... & \Rightarrow \dfrac{9}{9} = 0.999... & \Rightarrow \boxed{1 = 0.999...} \end{array}

Posted this in Facebook some time ago, but I thought they are not equal

.

Moderator note:

How many other ways are there to prove this statement?

I don't particularly like this proof as 0.999... is not well defined. However, treating it as a geometric series and using the formula for such gives the result rigorously.

Alex Patrick - 5 years, 11 months ago

This is not induction.

Pi Han Goh - 6 years ago

Chew-Seong Cheong, Thank you, your explanation makes more sense to me than some of the earlier ones. With yours it's easier to accept that 1 is, in fact, the answer!

Dennis Kamber - 5 years, 12 months ago

Sir, the inductive proof you have given seems to be incorrect, as it is an assumption you have that such a pattern continues throughout. My feeling is that it is no way related to Principle of Mathematical Induction and is just simple inductive reasoning, which may sometimes lead to wrong conclusions. This is from Wikipedia :

Inductive reasoning (as opposed to deductive reasoning or abductive reasoning) is reasoning in which the premises seek to supply strong evidence for (not absolute proof of) the truth of the conclusion. While the conclusion of a deductive argument is certain, the truth of the conclusion of an inductive argument is probable, based upon the evidence given.

Although its name may suggest otherwise, mathematical induction should not be misconstrued as a form of inductive reasoning (also see Problem of induction). Mathematical induction is an inference rule used in proofs. In mathematics, proofs including those using mathematical induction are examples of deductive reasoning, and inductive reasoning is excluded from proofs.

I am sorry for being critical (but I do appreciate your solutions a lot sir), but your first solution too has a problem. You have taken it as a lemma that 8 9 = 0.8888..... \dfrac{8}{9} = 0.8888..... and that 1 9 = 0.1111..... \dfrac{1}{9} = 0.1111..... . You need to provide the proofs of these lemmas you used too, to produce a complete solution.

There are many. From Wikipedia

Chew-Seong Cheong - 6 years ago

Thanks Karthik Venkata and Pi Han Goh for the comments. Now I know what Mathematical Induction is. I was trained in electrical engineering and not math. I was quite lost in all these rules even as a student.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 6 years ago

9/9 = 1 it does not equal 0.99999999. Just like 2/2, 8/8, and 16792745582/16792745582 all equal 1. Just as 1/1 does not equal 0.1111111111.

Jordan Thomas - 5 years, 11 months ago

0.99999 is 0.99999 its not 1 and they're not equal simple as that

Michael Tucker - 5 years, 10 months ago

We're not talking about 0.99999

Andrew Wilson - 5 years, 9 months ago
Mikhail Gaerlan
Jun 17, 2015

0.9999... = n = 0 0.9 ( 0.1 ) n = 0.9 1 0.1 = 0.9 0.9 = 1 0.9999... = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 0.9(0.1)^{n} = \frac{0.9}{1-0.1} = \frac{0.9}{0.9} = 1

a good mathematical proof

Himanshu Tuteja - 5 years, 11 months ago
James Munday
Jun 17, 2015

1/3 =0.3333333333... 3/3=0.999999999999999.... 3/3 is a whole, therefore 1 making 0.99999... equal to 1

if 1/3 is 0.3(3), and 2/3 = 0.6(6) doesn't mean that 3/3 is 0.9(9). 0.6(6) is between 0.66 and 0.67, like 1/3 is between 1.33 and 1.34, these 3 parts adds together resulting 1 and not 0.9(9).

Claudiu Nicolaie CISMARU - 5 years, 12 months ago
Mehul Arora
Jun 11, 2015

Let 0.99999999.... = x 0.99999999....=x .........(i)

Therefore, 10 x = 9.999999.... 10x=9.999999.... ......(ii)

Subtracting (i) from (ii)

9 x = 9 9x=9

x = 1 x=1

Therefore, 0.99999.... = 1 0.99999....=1

QED.

That is so true I think .I still don't get it.

Pranav Jagadeesan - 5 years, 11 months ago

It can't be 1 it always tend to 1. One must understand the difference between tend to 1 and equal to 1 the difference is infinitely small. Therefore, we assume it to be 1 so the problem are solved eaisly but logically it is not equal to 1. Hence for this question answer should be "No."

Shubham Jain - 5 years, 11 months ago
Colly Hazell
Jul 2, 2015

While seemingly not the same. The numbers are mathematically inseperable, and therefore the same.

"Mathematically inseperable", what a perfect phrase. That sums up the entirety of this argument.

Ian VanSickle - 5 years, 9 months ago

Both numbers would not be equal if there is a certain real number x x such that 0.9999.... < x < 1 0.9999....<x<1 . Well, if you found one, you can argue that they are not equal but then again there is no such number. Hence, 0.9999.. = 1 0.9999..=1 .

1 0.9 = 0.1 1 0.99 = 0.01 1 0.999 = 0.001 1 0.999... = 0.000... 1 - 0.9 = 0.1 \\ 1 -0.99 = 0.01 \\ 1 - 0.999 = 0.001 \\ \cdots \\ 1 - 0.999... = 0.000...

The one isn't there because there isn't an end of the zeroes where you can put it.

Alternatively, there are number systems with infinitesimals where 1 != 0.999...

Moderator note:

You have to be careful with justifying the claim of "there isn't an end of the zeroes where you can put it". How do you know that there isn't a "number" of the form 0.000 0001 0. 000 \ldots 0001 ?

Shawn Pereira
Jun 23, 2015

Proof

(A) 0. 9 ˉ 9 = 0. 1 ˉ \frac { 0.\bar { 9 } }{ 9 } =0.\bar { 1 }

(B) But 0. 1 ˉ = 1 9 0.\bar { 1 } =\frac { 1 }{ 9 }

From (A) and (B) , we get 0. 9 ˉ 9 = 1 9 \frac { 0.\bar { 9 } }{ 9 } = \frac { 1 }{ 9 }

Dividing both sides by 9, we get

0. 9 ˉ = 1 0.\bar {9} = 1

Eduardo Amâncio
Jun 23, 2015

A simple approach on this problem:

note that 1/3 = 0.3333...

now multiplying both parts by 3:

3 x 1/3 = 3 x 0.3333... , therefore 1 = 0.9999...

divide 3/3 in a calculator and see what the answer is

Jeremiah Simmons - 5 years, 11 months ago

A calculator isn't as precise as a proof. It uses algorithms from a program, but is not absolutely correct. Also, showing that 3/3=1 does nothing for us, as it does not prove that 1 is the only form the answer may be written. Merely that it is the form the calculator is programmed to return. There have been multiple valid proofs here showing that they are equal. (Although I disagree with the precision in the "1/3=.333..." line of proving. The idea of setting x=.99.... And multiplying by 10, then solving the system of equations is simple yet elegant, and proves the validity absolutely without approximation. Likewise, the proof using summation notation sufficiently proves.

Nolan Steinhart - 5 years, 11 months ago
Jake Lai
Aug 19, 2015

The trouble people are having is that infinitesimal distance between 0.9999 0.9999 \ldots and 1 1 . The thing is, on the real number line, we don't have an infinitesimal quantity, only 0 0 or some other "concrete" nonzero, non-infinitesimal number. So that "infinitesimal" distance one speaks of is simply 0 0 , and we know that if a b = 0 a-b = 0 then straightforwardly we have a = b a = b .

In fact, all real numbers are "approximated" by a sequence of rational numbers, by continued fractions or by decimal expansions (or any base of your choosing).

Chinmay Chhajed
Jun 24, 2015

Let 0.9999....=x 10x=9.99.... 10x-x= 9=9x Therefore x=1

Steve Brelsford
Jun 24, 2015

Reoeating decimals have a numerator that is the repeating digits and a denominator of as many 9s as there are digits that repeat. So in .9999.... the 9 repeats and there is only one digit that repeats (so one 9 in the denominator. So .9999...=9/9 and any fraction with the same numerator and denominator is equal to 1.

The problem I have with this proof is that although it is practically precise, it presupposes what we are trying to prove. How do we know that 1/3 strictly equals .3(3)? That is exactly what we want to prove, simply scaled. This introduces a clear fallacy. The simplest approach I have seen is letting x=.9(9), so 10x=9.9(9). So 10x-x=9.9(9)-.9(9), so 9x=9, so x=1. Therefore, 1=.9(9). There is no presupposition, simply the calling of a constant.

Nolan Steinhart - 5 years, 11 months ago
Ahmed Hazem
Jun 24, 2015

1/9 =0.1111111111......., 2/9=0.22222222222......., 3/9=0.33333333333........., etc 9/9=0.999999999................., and as we all know:9/9=1 :)

Zuyao Teoh
Jun 19, 2015

Go back to definition; see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Decimal_representation

We have r=1 and 0.9999... corresponds to a0=0 and a_i=9 for each positive integer i. By definition, 0.9999... = 1.

Hadia Qadir
Sep 8, 2015

Let x = 0.9999

then 10x = 9.9999

10x = 9+ 0.9999

10x = 9+x

9x=9

x=1

Lucie Philbin
Jul 2, 2015

1 - 0.99999... = 0.00000....

Therefore 0.99999... Is equal to 1

Alvi Apolinar
Jun 29, 2015

1/9 is equal to 0.1111111.......... (1/9) * 9 = 9/9 = 1 = 0.999999999........

Physics Master
Jun 28, 2015

Similarly, if we take the repeating fraction method, for example 1/9,2/9,and 3/9,etc.. then .9999 must equal 9/9, which equals 1.

Jim Lindholm
Jun 28, 2015

A slight variant that does not use limits and avoids the (correct but for some unintuitive) subtraction.

x=0.999... , 10x=9.999..., 10x=9+0.999... , 10x=9+x (no subtraction, just substitution...) , 9x=9 , x=1

You can also use ANY two fractions that add up to 1 and tha their decimal expansion often is 0.999... as in this example: 3/7 = 0.428571... and 4/7=0.571428.. adding the 3/7 and 4/7 gives 7/7=1 adding the decimals gives 0.428571... + 0.571428... = 0.999999... (no carry...ever) So once again.. 1=0.999...

Although i must confess I had answered as no and all my basics tell me that 0.999... and 1 are not equal but i can fault your solution

Hassaan Ahmed - 5 years, 11 months ago
Amitya Sharma
Jun 28, 2015

My teacher always used to explain me it this way :- If you don't believe 0.999...=1 Give me a a single number between 0.99... and 1

Ryan Tamburrino
Jun 27, 2015

1 3 = . 333... \frac{1}{3} = .333... 3 ( 1 3 ) = . 999... = 1 3\left(\dfrac{1}{3}\right) = .999... = 1

Shawn Lu
Jun 27, 2015

1/9=0.111... 9/9=0.999...=1 Or10*0.999... =9.999...,-0.999=9,/9=1

Peace Trap
Jun 27, 2015

the simplest solution i know is: consider the equation
1/3 = 0.333333......
multiply both sides by 3
1 = 0.9999999........


McKenna Marquart
Jun 27, 2015

1/3 = 0.33333...

3/3 = 1

1/3 * 3 = 3/3

0.3333...*3 = 0.999... ≈1

Paul Schafer
Jun 24, 2015

Set x = 0.999...

10x = 9.999...

10x - x = 9.999... - 0.999...

9x = 9.0

x = 1.0

0.999... = 1.0 Q.E.D.

Let x = 0.99999..........(1): 10x = 9.99999...........(2) : (2) - (1) gives, 9x =9. Therefore x = 9/9 = 1: So no gap between0.999999 and 1

Rian Chakraborty
Sep 8, 2015

Let k=0.999...9 -----(1)


=>10k=9.999...9 ----(2)


(2)-(1)


10k=9.999....9 -k = 0.99...9


9k=9.000...0=9 =>k=9/9=1

Ashith E N En
Sep 8, 2015

x=0.999... x=0.9+(0.1*x) hence x=1

Rounding up the figure 0.9999 to the nearest one's would be 1

Connor Rutter
Aug 20, 2015

This is what I was shown: Let R = 0.9999...... 10 R = 9.9999..... (10 R - R) (9.9999..... - 0.9999....) 9 R = 9 R = 1

Dennis Smith
Aug 19, 2015

does 1/3 = .333......? of so, then .999.... = 3/3 =1

Moderator note:

Great! Simple standard approach.

Rishu Bagga
Aug 19, 2015

It does not tend to one, because tending to one means on a curve, the limit at point x approaches c and that point c is one. However you will never get a number like 0.9999999..... It will be like 0.999999999856782829 or whatever and then it will get infinitely closer to 1 but never at 0.999999999...... . simply put 0.9999999...... Never really actually happens..... Its just one

Mohamed Anouar
Aug 2, 2015

entre 1 et 0.999.. il existe aucun nombre , d'aprés la densité de Q dans R , 1=0.99..

Narendra Rai
Jul 31, 2015

0.99999....=0.9090....+0.0909.....=(10/11)+(1/11)=1

Andrew Wilson
Jul 31, 2015

The difference between the is 0. Exactly 0.

Hrishikesh Boro
Jul 30, 2015

Let 0.9999.....=m =>10m=9.9999....... =>9m+m=9.9999........ =>9m=9.9999...........-0.9999....... =>m=9/9 =>0.9999......=1

Yash Doshi
Jul 3, 2015

1/9=.11111 2/9 = .22222 3/9=.333333 . .

. 8/9=.888888 Then 9/9= .9999999 or 1?

We know 9/9 is equal to 1. but if if follows the pattern .999999 should be the answer. therefore .999999 = 1

Dale Cook
Jul 2, 2015

Or a more simple approach. 1/3 = .3333... 1/3 * 3 = 1 .3333... * 3 = .9999...

Brendix Emata
Jul 2, 2015

If 0.333... = 1/3 is true then, 3 (0.333...) = 3(1/3) must also be true. We know that 3(1/3) = 1, then by transitivity law, 3(0.333...) = 1 must also be true. My former teacher in arithmetic, she has passed away 40 years ago anyway, told me that 3(0.333) = 0.999... And still, until now, I still don't know whether she is telling the truth. Maybe, my only mistake is that I will always keep on believing her that she was telling me the TRUTH.

Nusrat Mowla
Jun 29, 2015

0.9999... = 0.9 +0.09+0.009... (geometric series)

a=0.9

r=0.09/0.9 =0.1

Sn= a/1-r (sum to infinity)

=0.9/1-0.1

=0.9/0.9

=1

Seetharaman K
Jun 28, 2015

it may be tends to one. but practicaly its equal to one. and world is about practice , though the base is theory.

Joseph Amal C X
Jun 28, 2015

What is 0.999... subtracted from 1.000... .

Quang Mendler
Jun 28, 2015

We have:0.9999... = 0.1111.... x 9 Also: 0.1111.... = 1/9 -> 0.9999...= 1/9 x 9 = 1

1/3 = 0.3333... ; 3 * 0.3333... = 0.99999... ; 3 * 1/3 = 1 ; then, ; 0.99999... = 1

Bora Borra
Jun 27, 2015

When people here say 0.99999....99 equals 1, is it true? I would say yes in mathematics, but it would not be true in real life. In chemistry, measuring something needs a lot of significant digits and repeat that work any times in order to get accurate data. in real life we don't really consider anything around be perfect either. This means that nothing is equal to something else!

Huey Winston
Jun 27, 2015

3.333333.... = 1/3

3(3.333333... = 1/3)

9.999999... = 3/3

9.999999... = 1

There are an infinite amount of 9's. You can't add another 9 or stop at a certain number of 9's, it's forever. Which is almost incomprehensible and part of why this problem is so weird. With any finite number of 9's past the decimal the number is aproximatly 1, but with an infinite number of 9's, it is equal to 1.

simply round 0.9999..

Lew Sterling Jr
Jun 27, 2015

Yes. It is like saying that 1/3 is 0.333333333333333333333333333333333333333...

Eva Yu
Jun 27, 2015

0.3333...=1/3 0.3333...x3=3x1/3 No carry over numbers since example 0.333x3=0.999 0.9999...=3/3=1

Vishnu Vardhan
Jun 27, 2015

There is a property of real numbers that between any two distinct real numbers, there would be infinite real numbers. And between 0.9999...... and 1, there is no other distinct real number which makes both of them equal.

James Li
Jun 27, 2015

0.33333... = 1/3 3*0.3333...=3/3 = 0.999999 = 1

Shreyas Muthusamy
Jun 26, 2015

Since 8/9=0.888..., then 0.999...=9/9. If the denominator and the numerator is the same, then 9/9 would be 1. Therefore, 0.999...=1.

David Zhou
Jun 26, 2015

PROOF 1 3 = 0.333... \frac { 1 }{ 3 } =0.333...\\ 1 3 + 1 3 + 1 3 = 0.999... \frac { 1 }{ 3 } +\frac { 1 }{ 3 } +\frac { 1 }{ 3 } =0.999...\\ 1 3 + 1 3 + 1 3 = 1 \frac { 1 }{ 3 } +\frac { 1 }{ 3 } +\frac { 1 }{ 3 } =1\\ 0.999... = 1 3 + 1 3 + 1 3 = 1 0.999...=\frac { 1 }{ 3 } +\frac { 1 }{ 3 } +\frac { 1 }{ 3 } =1\\

Q.E.D.

Allen Waknine
Jun 25, 2015

0.99999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999999,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,IS ,,,,,,,,,,,SIMPLY =1

Nick Woodman
Jun 25, 2015

A simple proof that while not exceptionally rigorous, serves to illustrate the point is:

1/3=.3333.... 2/3=.6666.... 1/3+2/3=.9999... Or 1. This is the algebraic method for demonstrating. It holds true only when you take all repeating digits to infinity. Should you stop at any point before then, it is not 1, but a finite number. To infinity!

Oskaras Spalvys
Jun 25, 2015

1 / 3 = 0.33333 0.33333 * 3 = 0.99999 Therefore 0.99999 = 1

I don't think we can say they are typically same, but we can say it tends to 1. However for simplicity we can take as they are equal.

Mowlid Odowaa - 5 years, 11 months ago
Krishna Garg
Jun 24, 2015

I agree with Solution given by Karthik Venkata which is easiest to understand and Okay.

Declan Spence
Jun 24, 2015

0.999999......=(9/10)+(9/10^2)+(9/10^3)+...(9/10^n) where lim n->Inf

0.333333.....=(3/10)+(3/10^2)+(3/10^3)+...(3/10^n) where lim n-> inf also =1/3

3(1/3) = 3((3/10)+....3(3/10^n) where lim n->inf

3/3 = 9/10+....(9/10^n) where lim n-> inf

1 =0.99999999

Andrew Wilkes
Jun 24, 2015

1/3 = .3333... .3333..... 3=.9999... .9999...=1/3 3=1

One thing is not = to another, unless it is the absolute equal. Everything else is just argument to try to prove the contrary.

Effren Hernandez - 5 years, 11 months ago

It's easy.... .9999 does not always equal 1. In some permutations it is may be correct . In some it is clearly not. Math should be an absolute not an estimation.

Nicholas Ascolese - 5 years, 11 months ago

I've got some bad news about irrational numbers. Given that the fraction 1/3 has an infinite number of .3333... As 3x.3333.... approaches infinity, it is equal to 1.

Andrew Wilkes - 5 years, 11 months ago

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